eclipsenow said in post 962:
I'm done trying to discuss the genre of Revelation with you as you've repeatedly refused to answer the points here.
http://www.christianforums.com/t7473.../#post62706837
That was post 892 of this thread, the points of which were answered in the latter half of post 915.
Regarding "the genre of Revelation", Revelation itself can be almost entirely literal because, as scripture, it's not bound by any man-made ideas regarding any made-made categories for writings in general.
eclipsenow said in post 962:
. . . your infamously silly "It has been shown that Revelation is almost entirely literal because it is unsealed.." paragraph, which makes no sense of the genre and misapplies the 'unsealed' description to mean 'literal' (which it doesn't), and for for the many reasons I've outlined in our year of conversation and the summary of which is here.
http://www.christianforums.com/t7473.../#post62719062
That was post 919, which was addressed in post 924.
Also, can you give an example of where you have actually addressed each point in the "Revelation is almost entirely literal" paragraph, and proven from the scriptures themselves that each point is in error, instead of simply dismissing the whole thing as "rubbish", or something like that?
Regarding "misapplies the 'unsealed' description to mean 'literal'", are you saying that "unsealed" means "symbolic"? If so, how? For wouldn't it make more sense for something unsealed to consist almost entirely of literal statements, rather than mysterious symbols?
eclipsenow said in post 962:
I don't know why you insist on blurting out the obsessively detailed rubbish 'timetables' you indulge in so much . . .
Regarding "detailed", Revelation chapters 6 to 22 themselves contain a huge number of details.
Regarding "rubbish 'timetables'", how has the timetable that has been presented been shown to be rubbish?
eclipsenow said in post 962:
. . . your endless ranting about Android Images of the Antichrist or whatever other rubbish . . .
How has the idea of a single android image of the Antichrist been shown to be rubbish? For the original Greek word (eikon, G1504) translated as the "image" of the beast (Revelation 13:15) means something made in the likeness of something else, such as the image of a man engraved on a coin (Luke 20:24). So an android made in the likeness of the Antichrist (the individual-man aspect of the beast) could be referred to in the Greek as being an "eikon" of the Antichrist.
eclipsenow said in post 962:
. . . you cannot cite one scholar that agrees that Revelation should be read literally.
There is no need to, for sufficient reasons why Revelation should be read almost entirely literally have already been given. But how have you shown that even one scholar has proven, based on the scriptures themselves (compare Isaiah 8:20b) and not on any man-made ideas (compare 1 Corinthians 1:20), that Revelation should
not be read almost entirely literally?
eclipsenow said in post 962:
If you cannot find credible reasons to read it literally, why would I take anything you say seriously?
How have the reasons given for reading it almost entirely literally been proven to be not credible?
eclipsenow said in post 962:
You think . . . the fact that it promises the return of Jesus tells us what kind of writing it is.
It has not been said that Revelation is almost entirely literal simply because it promises the return of Jesus.
eclipsenow said in post 962:
But your presupposition that it is literal rests on your presupposition that it is full of specific timetable events of the future!
Regarding "your presupposition that it is literal", the idea that Revelation is almost entirely literal is not a presupposition, but is based on the fact that Revelation is unsealed (Revelation 22:10), meaning that it should not be difficult for saved people of any time to understand it if they simply read it as it is written: chronologically and almost-entirely literally. The few parts of it that are symbolic are almost always explained afterward (for example, Revelation 1:20, Revelation 17:9-12). And Revelation's few symbols not explained afterward (for example, Revelation 13:2) are usually explained elsewhere in the Bible (for example, Daniel 7:4-7,17). Just as Jesus' second coming in Revelation 19:7 to 20:3 will be fulfilled almost entirely literally, so the events of the preceding tribulation in Revelation chapters 6 to 18 will be fulfilled almost entirely literally. Also, the millennium in Revelation 20 will be literal, and will begin after Jesus' second coming (Revelation 19:7 to 20:6, Zechariah 14:3-21), when he will reign on the earth with the bodily resurrected church for a thousand years (Revelation 20:4-6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29, Psalms 66:3-4, Psalms 72:8-11). After that, the events of Revelation 20:7 to 22:5 will occur literally.
eclipsenow said in post 962:
But your presupposition that it is literal rests on your presupposition that it is full of specific timetable events of the future!
Regarding "your presupposition that it is full of
specific timetable events", the idea that Revelation chapters 6 to 22 are full of specific events is not a presupposition. For they contain such a huge number of details, which are so varied, so specific, so chronological, and so long, that to reduce all of them to merely a generic description of life at anytime would render them utterly useless. For what person who has ever lived needs a generic description of life? It would be like throwing Revelation chapters 6 to 22 in the trash, just to be done with them.
eclipsenow said in post 962:
But your presupposition that it is literal rests on your presupposition that it is full of specific timetable events of the future!
Regarding "your presupposition that it is full of specific
timetable events", the idea that Revelation chapters 6 to 22 are a timetable is not a presupposition. For the verses themselves show that the future tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 will begin with the events of the second through sixth seals, occurring in the order shown in Revelation 6:3-14. After the events of the sixth seal, Revelation 7 will occur. Then the seventh seal will be unsealed and out of it will come the tribulation's seven trumpets (Revelation 8:1-6). Then the events of the first six trumpets in Revelation 8:7 to Revelation 9:21 will occur in the order shown there. Then Revelation 10 will occur. Then the literal 3.5 years of the Antichrist's worldwide reign will occur, which time period is shown from four different angles in Revelation chapters 11 to 14 (Revelation 11:2b-3, Revelation 12:6,14, Revelation 13:5,7, Revelation 14:9-13).
Then the seventh trumpet will sound, announcing the legal end of the Antichrist's reign (Revelation 11:15). Out of the seventh trumpet's heavenly temple opening will come the seven plagues of the seven vials (Revelation 11:19, Revelation 15:5 to 16:1), the tribulation's final stage. Then the events of the seven vials will occur in the order shown in Revelation 16. Jesus will return right after the seventh vial (Revelation 16:17,19, Revelation 19:2-21), and he will marry the church at that time (Revelation 19:7). Then he will defeat the unsaved world (Revelation 19:11 to 20:3), and he will reign on the earth with the bodily resurrected church for a thousand years (Revelation 20:4-6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29). Then the events of Revelation 20:7 to Revelation 22:5 will occur in the order shown there.
eclipsenow said in post 962:
But your presupposition that it is literal rests on your presupposition that it is full of specific timetable events of the future!
Regarding "your presupposition that it is full of specific timetable events of the
future", the idea that Revelation chapters 6 to 22 are about future events is not a presupposition. For they are about "things which must be hereafter" (Revelation 4:1b). And just as Jesus' second coming in Revelation 19:7 to 20:3 has never been fulfilled, for nowhere in history books do we find its fulfillment, so the highly-detailed events of the preceding tribulation in Revelation chapters 6 to 18 have never been fulfilled, for nowhere in history books do we find their fulfillment.
eclipsenow said in post 962:
I read each of these events as symbolic, even the scene of God's throne in heaven. Why do you think it is literal?
There is no scriptural reason for God's throne in heaven not to be literal.
eclipsenow said in post 962:
Step 1: assume it's a timetable of the future because then Revelation becomes exciting, it's all about US!
Regarding "it's all about US!", not necessarily. For any of us could die at any time (Luke 12:20, James 4:14).
eclipsenow said in post 962:
So ignore the earlier 'after this' moments, and CERTAINLY ignore the later ones in Chapter 19 . . .
The "hereafter" at the end of Revelation 4:1 is different from the "After this" at the start of Revelation 4:1 and Revelation 19:1 (and at the start of some other chapters), not in the Greek, but in what they are referring to. For the "hereafter" at the end of Revelation 4:1 refers to events that must actually "be", in the sense of actually being performed, sometime in the future, that is, all the never-fulfilled events of Revelation chapters 6 to 22; whereas the "After this I looked" at the start of Revelation 4:1 refers to an action already completed by John in the past, after he had been told what to write in the seven letters in Revelation chapters 2-3. Similarly, "And after these things I heard" (Revelation 19:1) refers to an action already completed by John in the past, after he had seen a vision of the eternal destruction of the symbolic Babylon in Revelation 18, which has not been fulfilled yet.