KWCrazy
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- Apr 13, 2009
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That's about as irrelevant as could be. How about the use of that world in other places in Twelfth Night? If it was used 357 other times in the same play, all meaning the same thing, would it not make sense that it meant the same in act one? The meaning in the dictionary maens nothing if the author is consistent. Even if he has the meaning wrong, you can't say that he meant different things by it throughout the play. Your analogy is ludicrous.Tell me, if a particular word in Shakespeare's TWELFTH NIGHT always has a particular meaning/definition, are all of the OTHER definitions listed under the word in the Oxford English Dictionary incorrect and worthy of removal?
Irrelevant. It's usage has nothing to do with people's daily interactions. We're talking about its usage in the Bible. when used as it is in Genesis, it ALWAYS means a single 24 hour day. Period. 357 times out of 357 after Genesis.It is OBVIOUS that YOM often means "24hour day" when used in accounts where the daily lives of people are described.
Irrelevant.Genesis 1 is a rare kind of context in the Bible because it is among the few where NO HUMANS exist until toward the end of the chapter!
Irrelevant. 357 out of 357.I don't expect you to have advanced linguistics training or even Hebrew exegesis skills.
And I expect you to answer how long the evenings and mornings were. You're on here as a minister's wife arguing against the verbiage of the Bible. That's not exactly the position I would expect.But I DO expect you to apply common sense to the English Bible translation!
Once again, were aren't talking about Hebrew linguistics, were are talking about what is written in the Scriptures and how it is used throughout the Bible. Knowledge of Hebrew is useless if you don;t know how it was used THEN. For example, just in my lifetime the meanng of words in our lexicon have taken on entirely different meanings. You have to be consistent with the time frame. If the meaning of the designated evening and morning meant the same thing 357 times out of 357 times, then one would think it meant exactly that. It is used differently when it means long periods of time, such as "in the days of Noah." You know this. Why are you misrepresenting it?Once again, you are NOT in any position to pontificate imagined "rules" of Hebrew grammar which do not exist!
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