For another approach on 490 years, we must visit the idiom 7x70 which, as you know, was used by a disciple about the number of times to forgive, Mt 18. We know from the histories and Jeremiah that the land of Israel had to 'rest' by force from God because of sin (2 Chron 36). 70 years.
An idiom like 70x7 takes the original length of something and says 'for ever' or 'infinitely.' We know this from the application of the Mt 18 parable about forgiveness; do we have the sense to render this about Dan. 9's vision? It means to say that (based on the precedent of the previous 70 year punishment) that a final, permanent punishment was arriving, in which the new redemptive community entered and stayed in God's rest.
This is the strong suggestion of both the prayer of Dan. 9 ("the LORD is righteous in [the previous desolation of Jerusalem]; yet we have not obeyed him.) and of Luke 21.
In Luke 21 the point is made that this is the time of punishment in fulfillment of all that is written. HAving read that, I'm not sure if any events afterward in Israel have any point to them. How could he say this without the finality of Dan.9's 70 7s in mind? It's what the idiom means.
So, far from being a timeline toy to tinker with, it is a Hebraism about final punishment. Then, if a person can't see that it has its fulfillment in the horrible 7th decade of Judea, I don't know what can be done. It is quite plain to see.
Sorry to be so long, but the 70 7s needed proper explaining.
--Inter
An idiom like 70x7 takes the original length of something and says 'for ever' or 'infinitely.' We know this from the application of the Mt 18 parable about forgiveness; do we have the sense to render this about Dan. 9's vision? It means to say that (based on the precedent of the previous 70 year punishment) that a final, permanent punishment was arriving, in which the new redemptive community entered and stayed in God's rest.
This is the strong suggestion of both the prayer of Dan. 9 ("the LORD is righteous in [the previous desolation of Jerusalem]; yet we have not obeyed him.) and of Luke 21.
In Luke 21 the point is made that this is the time of punishment in fulfillment of all that is written. HAving read that, I'm not sure if any events afterward in Israel have any point to them. How could he say this without the finality of Dan.9's 70 7s in mind? It's what the idiom means.
So, far from being a timeline toy to tinker with, it is a Hebraism about final punishment. Then, if a person can't see that it has its fulfillment in the horrible 7th decade of Judea, I don't know what can be done. It is quite plain to see.
Sorry to be so long, but the 70 7s needed proper explaining.
--Inter