addo
Senior Member
You should study God's world more, because you are wrong on this one, if I am not mistaken. Here are some verses to consider:Perhaps you haven't read much of the OT, but women face much harsher realities than that. In fact, if you were a virgin and got raped, you would be sentenced to death.
"If a damsel that is a virgin be betrothed unto an husband, and a man find her in the city, and lie with her; Then ye shall bring them both out unto the gate of that city, and ye shall stone them with stones that they die; the damsel, because she cried not, being in the city; and the man, because he hath humbled his neighbour's wife: so thou shalt put away evil from among you." (Deuteronomy 22:23-24 KJV)
In the above case, both were stoned because the man committed adultery and the girl didn't scream, indicating acceptance. If she was truly forced then she didn't agree and naturally she should have screamed (or make loud noise to get attention) to get help. Since in the above case she didn't, it showed a case of acceptance, thus this means that she consents for the male to have sex with her, so they are both guilty: this is why both we killed in that case.
"But if a man find a betrothed damsel in the field, and the man force her, and lie with her: then the man only that lay with her shall die: But unto the damsel thou shalt do nothing; there is in the damsel no sin worthy of death: for as when a man riseth against his neighbour, and slayeth him, even so is this matter: For he found her in the field, and the betrothed damsel cried, and there was none to save her." (Deuteronomy 22:25-27 KJV)
In this case the promised girl is found in the field, and since even if she screamed, no one could help her, only the rapist is executed.
But this is only in the case the girl was promised to a man (they were going to get married; i.e.: she was engaged). If she was an unengaged virgin this is what was to do:
"If a man find a damsel that is a virgin, which is not betrothed, and lay hold on her, and lie with her, and they be found; Then the man that lay with her shall give unto the damsel's father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall be his wife; because he hath humbled her, he may not put her away all his days." (Deuteronomy 22:28-29 KJV)
Now if a girl was not engaged and was raped (or just had sex, rape wasn't necessary for this to apply, I think) the man had to pay a price to the father and he was also to be his husband for life.
There weren't many words translated as "lie" in those passage, but all the words were the same: shâkab. Shâkab was used in all those instances and was translated as "lie", but obviously it had various meanings. Just like: "I slept with your sister" can have two meanings at least: I had sex with your sister or I literally slept with your sister, and nothing else. It's a phrase, just like "to lie with" is. And in that case it means to have sex, but not in a certain manner.No it doesn't. Did you not read where I said in Hebrew, there are multiple words that when translated into English, mean the same thing, but have different meanings in Hebrew? This is why you cannot take an English translation at face value.
God didn't approve.I hardly consider the first verse to be a noble example of sexual relations. Rachel told Leah to sleep with her husband, and Leah told Jacob he must sleep with her. Did he have any choice in the matter, considering God apparently approved of such twisted relationships? Who can say?
And Jacob had the ability to deny, he was not forced.
Not really. It just means sex and by context we know whether it is forced or with consent.As for the second verse, I didn't say that word only exists for one meaning. Shakab means several things. I said in the usual context of direct sexual relations, it refers to some type of forced or deceitful actions.
Where do you read the phrase "in the bed of a woman"? This is what it says in my Bible in Leviticus 18:22:Sorry, doesn't work. Look at the context of the passage. Why does it add "in the bed of a woman", if it was an outright condemnation on homosexuality? Why not just say "Thou shalt not lie with mankind, it is abomination"?
"Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination." (Leviticus 18:22 KJV)
Please quote the verse where it says "in the bed of a woman". I though we were speaking of the same verse (this one being Leviticus 18:22 or Leviticus 20:13)The fact that in the Hebrew, it describes a specific location and instance, indicates it's referring to a cultural aspect. That to put a man in the position of a woman, i.e. in her bed, is the abomination. Not the fact that it's two men sleeping together.
If this is so, why aren't there any verse where it forbids women to take the lead in sex? In other words, it were wrong for women to be on top, right? Why aren't there any verse forbidding it?In my opinion, Lev 18:22 is stating that it is improper for a man - who was the head of society, to force another man into the position of a subservient woman, because it is demeaning in those days for a man to play the non-dominant role. This makes sense given patriarchal societies.
Let's see..._______________"If a man also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them." (Leviticus 20:13 KJV)Since when is the Old Testament just by our standards?
- What do you mean by "our"? The modern society? The Church? The world in general?
- Why wouldn't it be just? Jesus inspired it. Jesus quoted it. It is declared as inspired by God. Paul quoted the Old Testament.
And...? Why is it wrong? I bet the society was a lot better then since children obeyed their parents.Children were executed for back talking to their parents back then.
How do you know? Were you there?They didn't care who the guilty and innocent parties were.
Actually, it was important. As you read, if the engaged woman, for example was forced and she cried for help, she was not executed and if it as in the field and no one could hear she wasn't executed either since it is taken as a fact that she tried to call for help.Only that both were engaged in the act, regardless if one person was forced.
It's wonderful, isn't it?Welcome to Biblical morality.
This is because they are from the world, and which is from the world does not understand God, who is not from the world.This is why so many people find the Bible, especially the OT, repugnant.
Why not? I find some very good moral percepts in it.It is not a moral code by which anyone should follow.
"Do not spread false reports. Do not help a wicked man by being a malicious witness. Do not follow the crowd in doing wrong. When you give testimony in a lawsuit, do not pervert justice by siding with the crowd, and do not show favoritism to a poor man in his lawsuit. If you come across your enemy's ox or donkey wandering off, be sure to take it back to him. If you see the donkey of someone who hates you fallen down under its load, do not leave it there; be sure you help him with it. Do not deny justice to your poor people in their lawsuits. Have nothing to do with a false charge and do not put an innocent or honest person to death, for I will not acquit the guilty. Do not accept a bribe, for a bribe blinds those who see and twists the words of the righteous. Do not oppress an alien; you yourselves know how it feels to be aliens, because you were aliens in Egypt." (Exodus 23:1-9 NIV)
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