He didn't select any Gentiles to be Apostles either. Logical conclusion is "you can't consecrate non-Hebrews"
That's silly and easy disproved by the fact that he interacted extensively with non-Jews and proclaimed that the Kingdom of God is for all men, not just Jews. The reason in which there were only Jews among the apostleship is because the religion was still Judaism, a religion that to this day is still more tightly bound by ethnicity than anything else.
Don't you recall how Jesus praised the centurion, a Roman, and therefore, non-Jew? Probably even non-Middle Eastern. Your conclusions don't make sense.
Again, I'm not disagreeing with the discipline as it currently exists in Lambeth 1.10 (unless it were to change). However, better forms of arguments need to be given.
In addition, a previous poster is correct: this is the Anglican (Canterbury or Continuing) and Old Catholic forum. You posts cannot be debating in nature since you are not a member of any communion or church recognized as Anglican or Old Catholic.
As for my participation in "debate," I continue to disagree. I haven't spoken about anything regarding the Anglican faith. The debate that is occurring is over homosexuals in the priesthood in the Anglican church, and whether Jesus was a homosexual.
Not even all you Anglicans on this forum are unified in any of these positions, how can you come here and say that I can't debate Anglican positions? What Anglican position am I contesting, exactly?
Sodom and Gomorrah were not about homosexuality and Romans 1 needs to be read right through to Romans 2:1, perhaps you should do so?
Personally I don't care much about Sodom and Gamorrah, especially considering that the Bible has been explicit in every other instance it has been mentioned.
Concerning Romans, I think you are conflating two different points.
Romans is very clear:
"Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural ones. 27In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversion." (Romans 1:26-27)
This is so blatantly clear, you can't nick pick it and arrive at any other conclusion. It is referring specifically to homosexual behavior, as I've put in bold. Evidently, homosexuality is not even considered natural, because they've abandoned the natural relations for the unnatural.
This is what it says after verse 27:
"Furthermore, since they did not think it worthwhile to retain the knowledge of God, he gave them over to a depraved mind, to do what ought not to be done." (verse 28)
This is representing a separation with the previous verse. "Furthermore" implies that there is something else wrong in addition to what was already said.
As for Romans 2:1, I think you've forgotten about Romans 2:2.
"You, therefore, have no excuse, you who pass judgment on someone else, for at whatever point you judge the other, you are condemning yourself, because you who pass judgment do the same things. 2Now we know that God's judgment against those who do such things is based on truth. 3So when you, a mere man, pass judgment on them and yet do the same things, do you think you will escape God's judgment?" (Romans 2:1-3)
This is referring to something else that's different. This is referring to hypocrisy. Performing the acts that you yourself (not you personally, of course) are condemning.
Romans 1 is against homosexuality.