I suppose the crux of the disagreement is that one side (my side) contends that the OT scriptures were delivered for to a specific people within a specific cultural context, and that we must employ reason to interpret God's message as a whole and apply it to modern contexts. The conclusion that my side has reached is that homosexuality in the modern context of a monogamous and commited relationship is neither a perversion nor sinful, due to our interpretation of God's message and our perception of its relevance to this particular modern context.
I think that the problem most of the rest of us have with that kind of explanation is that "the OT" is not really viewed as obsolete by you, just the parts dealing with homosexuality (and probably some other, selected, portions you don't care for). I am assuming, you see, that you don't consider the Ten Commandments to also be null and void for modern Christians.
I don't hear arguments saying that drunkards and heterosexuals living with someone that they aren't married to are to be ordained without any consideration of their lifestyle. IOW, you've accepted the
secular arguments about homosexuality made by or on behalf of the homosexual community and then found a reason in scripture to justify that thinking, after the fact.
I suppose this would be considered more of a fundamentalist approach.
Not by anyone who knows the facts.
The main churches opposing homosexual ordination are not the relatively small fundamentalist community, but the Roman Catholics, the Eastern Orthodox, most Lutherans, Anglicans, and etc. These constitute the majority of Christians and are not fundamentalists by any stretch of the imagination.
My perception of your assessment is something along the lines of: 'God said it within a different cultural and historical context, but that doesn't change the fact that he said it so it still applies'.
Well, I'd like for you to help us out with that perception. Explain it a bit more fully so we can understand you correctly. THE ENTIRE BIBLE was written for a different people in a different age and is, by that reasoning, not "relevant" to the "modern context."
If we go by what you've said on this matter, the situation is simply that we feel that the Bible is authoritative and you do not--because it's all out of context for us. Or do you say that there some reason for thinking that even a little of it
is relevant to us, since it all was written for a far different culture by people of a far different culture? How could there be, given what you've said about context being the determining factor?