Neopatriarch
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Since v15 which is in the future tense is conjoined to v14 which is the perfect saying, But she (refering back to the woman IN SIN) will be saved if they continue therefore only the woman IN SIN can do something to be saved, because a dead person, Eve cannot continue in faith, love and holiness with propriety. So its the perfect tense of v14 along with the future tense of v15 that prove that the woman cannot be Eve.
The woman in sin will be saved if they (a/the woman and a man) continue in faith...
The perfect tense indicates the present state which has resulted from a completed past action. It's true that Eve is dead. She had become a transgressor and so she was in a continued state of being a transgressor until she died, and yes, that is in the past. But remember, in 1 Timothy 2:14 Eve ("the woman") represents womankind. Womankind has fallen into transgression and they have become transgressors. The state of women being transgressors continues today. So, the use of the prefect tense is perfectly appropriate.
When verse 15 says "Yet she will be saved through childbearing" it means any Christian woman who is represented by Eve will (future tense) be saved through "childbearing". It is not referring to Eve. The antecedent of "she" is in verse 12. It is "a woman."
As I point out in my blog post, the chiastic structure determines the correct pronoun-antecedent relationships:
A (9-10) Christian women (plural)
B (11-12) a woman (singular indefinite noun) it means any Christian woman.
C (13) Eve (generic / representative woman)
C (14) the woman (generic / representative woman)
B (15a) she has the antecedent a woman
A (15b) they has the antecedent women, Christian women in context
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