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BigBadWlf
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The Septuagint says bdelygmademonstrably untrue
Jeremiah 7:9-10 uses zimah not toebah
When "to'ebah" refers to the breaking of a ritual law it might be better translated "ritually improper," or "involves foreign religious cult practice."
Ross Taylor? So a software engineer http://www.apocalipsis.org/bio.htm knows more about Hebrew translation than biblical scholars?"Scripture itself disproves that the word toevah only applies to ceremonial or ritual impurity. The nations that the Hebrews were about to inhabit, were judged and driven out of the due to the abominations (toevah) they had committed, Lev 18:24-30, Deu 18:9, 20:18, 2 King 16:3, 21:2. They did not have the ceremonial or ritual law that the Hebrews had. Also stealing, murder, adultery, swearing falsely, idolatry and hypocrisy are also described as toevah (Jer 7:9-10). This is discussed in The Same Sex Controversy61. "
- Common pro-gay theological arguments
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