This is from a different forum on the same discussion (opened by me on that forum as well). Read and comment.
Pastor Roger said:
Hello Homie,
Here's a quote of scripture from one of your own previous posts on this forum.
"Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband."
This verse, 1Co 7:2, couldn't be clearer and yes there are many other such verses. Yes, some translations use the word immorality or sexual immorality in place of fornication but it is still quite clear in what it means. Those that attempt to blur the meaning are those that simply want to give validation to their own actions. It is no different than those that claim homosexuality is not taught as sin in the Bible.
As Brother Tom said ... "this isn't an open issue with any questions." It is quite clearly taught against in the Bible if one just opens their eyes.
Yes, this verse does imply that sex before marriage is wrong. Jesus also says that even looking upon a woman lustfully is sin, He raises the bar. But why the impliedness of this particular sin, whereas all the other sexual sins (and others) are spelled out as wrong, not just by implication but specifically listed as sins. Nowhere in these lists (whether in the NT or OT) is pre-marital sex listed, but all the others are; being sex with animals, sex with same sex, sex with family members, and most importantly (and in the 10 commandments) adultery.
My theory: God does not consider pre-marital sex optimal, like He doesn't consider multiple wives and concubines optimal, or slavery, or divorce. But He allowed it in the OT period, He does not declare it as a sin. One of these were repealed in the NT; divorce, now specifically listed as sinful unless because of adultery. But pre-marital sex, multiple wives and slavery is still not specifically listed as sinful, although all of them are alluded to as less than optimal.
But you guys are wrong to assume that fornication means sex before marriage. It means temple prostitution, something rampant among the Greeks of the day, which is why it is warned against so many times in the epistles, because a lot of the new churches were in Greece and the Greek speaking world. The Greeks also engaged in homosexual acts, sex with boys, orgys and bought slaves for sex. I think a lot of the focus on sexual purity in the NT has to do with the rampant sexual liberty in the Greek culture of the time. According to Paul, the very most optimal state would be to abstain from sex and marriage altogether, how optimal are we to be?