The Bible silent on pre-marital sex?

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Ave Maria

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1. The Bible is indeed silent on premarital sex. It mentions fornication in some translations which our modern dictionaries say is sex between two unmarried persons. However, we must realize what the ancient word of "fornix" from which we get the word "fornication" means. It means an archway where prostitutes sold their bodies for sex. As you can see, fornication in the Bible has nothing to do with premarital sex. The more proper translation is sexual immorality which does not include premarital sex.

2. Since the Bible is silent on premarital sex, it is a gray issue and therefore is an issue where we can choose what to do on this matter.
 
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Zebra1552

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1. The Bible is indeed silent on premarital sex. It mentions fornication in some translations which our modern dictionaries say is sex between two unmarried persons. However, we must realize what the ancient word of "fornix" from which we get the word "fornication" means. It means an archway where prostitutes sold their bodies for sex. As you can see, fornication in the Bible has nothing to do with premarital sex. The more proper translation is sexual immorality which does not include premarital sex.

2. Since the Bible is silent on premarital sex, it is a gray issue and therefore is an issue where we can choose what to do on this matter.
'fornix' is not the word being used. Fornication does have to do with premarital sex. Look at Paul's teachings on marriage, or Jesus' teachings for that matter.
Fornication is not just sexual immorality or adultery, the Greek disagrees with you:
G4202
πορνεία
inappropriate contenteia
Thayer Definition:
1) illicit sexual intercourse
1a) adultery, fornication, homosexuality, lesbianism, intercourse with animals etc.
1b) sexual intercourse with close relatives; Lev. 18
1c) sexual intercourse with a divorced man or woman; Mar_10:11,Mar_10:12
2) metaphorically the worship of idols
2a) of the defilement of idolatry, as incurred by eating the sacrifices offered to idols
Part of Speech: noun feminine
Emphasis mine.

This word is used in multiple instances, like this one:
1Co 6:12 All things are lawful for me, but not all things are profitable. All things are lawful for me, but I will not be mastered by anything.
1Co 6:13 Food is for the stomach and the stomach is for food, but God will do away with both of them. Yet the body is not for immorality, but for the Lord, and the Lord is for the body.

Or this one:
1Co 7:1 Now concerning the things about which you wrote, it is good for a man not to touch a woman.
1Co 7:2 But because of immoralities, each man is to have his own wife, and each woman is to have her own husband.

Or this one:

1Th 4:1 Finally then, brethren, we request and exhort you in the Lord Jesus, that as you received from us instruction as to how you ought to walk and please God (just as you actually do walk), that you excel still more.
1Th 4:2 For you know what commandments we gave you by the authority of the Lord Jesus.
1Th 4:3 For this is the will of God, your sanctification; that is, that you abstain from sexual immorality;
1Th 4:4 that each of you know how to possess his own vessel in sanctification and honor,
1Th 4:5 not in lustful passion, like the Gentiles who do not know God;
1Th 4:6 and that no man transgress and defraud his brother in the matter because the Lord is the avenger in all these things, just as we also told you before and solemnly warned you.
1Th 4:7 For God has not called us for the purpose of impurity, but in sanctification.

All those seem pretty clear to me. Lust is condemned too, after all.
 
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Ave Maria

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'fornix' is not the word being used. Fornication does have to do with premarital sex. Look at Paul's teachings on marriage, or Jesus' teachings for that matter.
Fornication is not just sexual immorality or adultery, the Greek disagrees with you:
G4202
πορνεία
inappropriate contenteia
Thayer Definition:
1) illicit sexual intercourse
1a) adultery, fornication, homosexuality, lesbianism, intercourse with animals etc.
1b) sexual intercourse with close relatives; Lev. 18
1c) sexual intercourse with a divorced man or woman; Mar_10:11,Mar_10:12
2) metaphorically the worship of idols
2a) of the defilement of idolatry, as incurred by eating the sacrifices offered to idols
Part of Speech: noun feminine
Emphasis mine.

This word is used in multiple instances, like this one:
1Co 6:12 All things are lawful for me, but not all things are profitable. All things are lawful for me, but I will not be mastered by anything.
1Co 6:13 Food is for the stomach and the stomach is for food, but God will do away with both of them. Yet the body is not for immorality, but for the Lord, and the Lord is for the body.

Or this one:
1Co 7:1 Now concerning the things about which you wrote, it is good for a man not to touch a woman.
1Co 7:2 But because of immoralities, each man is to have his own wife, and each woman is to have her own husband.

Or this one:

1Th 4:1 Finally then, brethren, we request and exhort you in the Lord Jesus, that as you received from us instruction as to how you ought to walk and please God (just as you actually do walk), that you excel still more.
1Th 4:2 For you know what commandments we gave you by the authority of the Lord Jesus.
1Th 4:3 For this is the will of God, your sanctification; that is, that you abstain from sexual immorality;
1Th 4:4 that each of you know how to possess his own vessel in sanctification and honor,
1Th 4:5 not in lustful passion, like the Gentiles who do not know God;
1Th 4:6 and that no man transgress and defraud his brother in the matter because the Lord is the avenger in all these things, just as we also told you before and solemnly warned you.
1Th 4:7 For God has not called us for the purpose of impurity, but in sanctification.

All those seem pretty clear to me. Lust is condemned too, after all.


Hmmm, I thought that the word "fornix" was being used for fornication. Anyway, if it isn't, then you are correct and sex before marriage is wrong.
 
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Zebra1552

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Hmmm, I thought that the word "fornix" was being used for fornication. Anyway, if it isn't, then you are correct and sex before marriage is wrong.
Wow. I didn't see that coming. Reps.
 
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elephunky

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lust   /lʌst/ Show Spelled Pronunciation [luhst] Show IPA Pronunciation

–noun 1.intense sexual desire or appetite.2.uncontrolled or illicit sexual desire or appetite; lecherousness.3.a passionate or overmastering desire or craving (usually fol. by for): a lust for power. 4.ardent enthusiasm; zest; relish: an enviable lust for life.
 
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Zebra1552

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lust   /lʌst/ Show Spelled Pronunciation [luhst] Show IPA Pronunciation

–noun 1.intense sexual desire or appetite.2.uncontrolled or illicit sexual desire or appetite; lecherousness.3.a passionate or overmastering desire or craving (usually fol. by for): a lust for power. 4.ardent enthusiasm; zest; relish: an enviable lust for life.
The Bible was originally in Greek, though, so you'll have to do better than that.
 
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Zebra1552

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Yeah and was translated into english.
Seriously. The Greek:
G1937
ἐπιθυμέω
epithumeō
Thayer Definition:
1) to turn upon a thing
2) to have a desire for, long for, to desire
3) to lust after, covet
3a) of those who seek things forbidden

Part of Speech: verb

Is a bit more important, being that it was the original language. Lust isn't just sexual desire as Jesus and Paul use it. It's desire for things that are forbidden- like coveting. In other words, one can't lust after their wife.
 
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Zebra1552

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the problem being that there are a few meanings to one word, so its basically how you WANT to interperate it.
Context determines meaning- there are three meanings:
G1937
ἐπιθυμέω
epithumeō
Thayer Definition:
1) to turn upon a thing
2) to have a desire for, long for, to desire
3) to lust after, covet
3a) of those who seek things forbidden
Part of Speech: verb

Obviously all desire isn't wrong. Obviously it isn't 'to turn upon a thing'. Therefore, it must be the third.
 
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elephunky

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You come to that conclusion due to logic, doesnt mean that conclusion is right tho.

Even then, for each person what they are lusting after may not been seen to them as forbidden either.

As stated earlier, its all about how each person enterperates teh text
 
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Zebra1552

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You come to that conclusion due to logic, doesnt mean that conclusion is right tho.

Even then, for each person what they are lusting after may not been seen to them as forbidden either.

As stated earlier, its all about how each person enterperates teh text
I've shown earlier that fornication, per the Greek, shows that premarital sex is wrong when you look at how Paul uses it in 1 Corinthians. So desiring sex before marriage is forbidden. Desiring sex with others who are not your husband or wife is forbidden. Desiring to kill someone is forbidden. Desiring anything that is expressly condemned in Scripture is forbidden. You're right. I come to that conclusion with logic. That's not interpretation. That's looking at what was written. If you think the logic I used to come to the conclusion fails in some way, then please feel free to point it out. However, if the evidence stands, then the conclusion also stands.
 
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elephunky

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As i stated earlier, it doesnt specify the difference between marriage in teh eyes of God and legal marriage.

There was no sense of legal marriage in the day of adam and eve, they were married in the eyes of God
 
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Zebra1552

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As i stated earlier, it doesnt specify the difference between marriage in teh eyes of God and legal marriage.

There was no sense of legal marriage in the day of adam and eve, they were married in the eyes of God
'Married in the eyes of God'. Where is that in Scripture? Nowhere. 'Married'. Where is that in Scripture? Plenty of places. There was no concept of 'legal' and 'Godly' marriage in Bible times. They were one and the same. It doesn't specify the difference because there IS no difference. A commitment is a commitment- and saying your vows is usually something done in marriage. It's not that hard to get married.
 
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elephunky

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It does state it in the bible, but as my memory isnt what it should be I cannot recall which part of the bible it is from.

A committment can be made privately between two people without the need for legalities. A lot of people prefer not to bcause a piece of paper means nothing, the vows to each other menas everything.

Plus, marriage in a legal sense is over rated and over priced and has no meaning
 
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Zebra1552

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It does state it in the bible, but as my memory isnt what it should be I cannot recall which part of the bible it is from.

A committment can be made privately between two people without the need for legalities. A lot of people prefer not to bcause a piece of paper means nothing, the vows to each other menas everything.

Plus, marriage in a legal sense is over rated and over priced and has no meaning
Where does it state it? Go search it. There's tons of search options available.

Legal marriage requires three things- two witnesses, a preacher, and a couple. Not that hard.
 
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