1. Is the Bible silent on pre-marital sex? If not, show it.
2. If so, does God not condemn it?
Personally I believe that The Bible sort of infers it when it describes sexual promiscuity in a negative light. However, it never straight out says "Do not have sex before marriage". If God wants us to abstain from pre-marital sex, why does He not spell it out so that there can be no confusion? Like He does with homosexual sex (for both sexes), sex with animals, adultery (infidelity) and sex with immediate family members.
The Bible mentions fornication often, which in many translations is translated sexual immorality. But what is sexual immorality? It is either left up to the reader to figure out, or we can assume that it is the specific sexual acts mentioned in the Bible as sinful. Why the silence on the issue?
I'd like only people who are knowledgeable about The Bible to answer, this is to be a serious discussion.
2. If so, does God not condemn it?
Personally I believe that The Bible sort of infers it when it describes sexual promiscuity in a negative light. However, it never straight out says "Do not have sex before marriage". If God wants us to abstain from pre-marital sex, why does He not spell it out so that there can be no confusion? Like He does with homosexual sex (for both sexes), sex with animals, adultery (infidelity) and sex with immediate family members.
The Bible mentions fornication often, which in many translations is translated sexual immorality. But what is sexual immorality? It is either left up to the reader to figure out, or we can assume that it is the specific sexual acts mentioned in the Bible as sinful. Why the silence on the issue?
I'd like only people who are knowledgeable about The Bible to answer, this is to be a serious discussion.