Church Tradition does embrace Scripture as canon. It sometimes includes extra Biblical authority but Sola Scripture does not conflict with the Nicene Creed.
It is a question of whether tradition has the authority to define the meaning of scripture or simply throws light on how our brothers and sisters in the past understood it.
For since by man came death, by man came also the resurrection of the dead. For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. (ICor.15:21,22)
Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: (Romans 5:12)
"it was Adam who was first created, and then Eve" (1 Tim. 2:13-14)
Great verses, but where is the one you keep quoting "all sinned in Adam"?
Paul preached Adam sinned and that we all sinned in Adam,
Paul says we all sinned in Adam, what do you say?
This should be good.
That is not what he said, He said Adam was a figure of Christ. You can no more make Adam a figure of speech then you can Christ.
If Paul is describing Adam as a figure, then Adam could be either a literal character being used allegorically or an allegorical character to begin with. There are a number of important things that come from Paul discussing Adam as a figure of Christ.
- You claimed Moses, Jesus and Paul all were speaking literally and there isn't a shred of textual evidence of anything to the contrary. Well here here is a bit more than a shred of evidence that Paul was speaking figuratively. He tell us himself.
- The passage is not evidence of a literal Adam as Creationists think.
- It shows the importance of a figurative interpetation of Genesis.
- The lessons Paul takes from Adam do not depend on a Adam being a literal individual.
I don't see what any of this has to do with Christ being figurative.
And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female, (Mat 19:4)
'He which made them at the beginning' - When Adam and Eve were the first of human kind. There is not 'like' or 'as' or any indication in the context that this is an allegory. You are twisting the meaning to suit you own purposes.
Where is Adam?
Jesus used the story in Genesis as if it were a description of God's plan for marriage instead of an account of the first thoraxic surgury and cloning. That is an allegorical interpetation.
He doesn't even mention Adam
and Eve, just that God made male and female and that this shows us his plan for marriage.
The prophecy fulfilled and elaborated on by Jesus are evident in the Gospels. The Serpent is mentioned again in prophecy only when the serpents head is finally crushed.
Rev 12:9 12:9 And the great dragon was cast out, that old serpent, called the Devil, and Satan, which deceiveth the whole world: he was cast out into the earth, and his angels were cast out with him.
Luke 24:27 tells us Jesus elaborated on a lot more messianic references than are listed in the Gospels. Do you really think he missed this one, the very first Messianic prophecy, and that it was later stumbled on by his Apostles?
The snake being the spiritual enemy defeated by God is found through out the bible
Job 26:13 Psalm 74:14 Isaiah 27:1 Isaiah 51:9 Ezek 28, as well as Rev 12. Jesus himself refers to it in John 8:44 where recognises the devil as the one who brought death and deceit from the beginning.
All of these references that recognise the snake as a spiritual being are interpreting Gen 3 allegorically.
Adam is always at the top of the list when giving the annuls of the generations of mankind. (Gen. 5:1; 1 Chron. 1:1; Luke 2:38) to assume that they were not considered to be literal persons and our first parents is absurd.
And Gen 5:2 tells us that Adam wasn't a single individual. Do you have any other references to Moses even mentioning Adam?
The genealogies are a digression when you were talking about Moses Jesus and Peter. However 1 Chron. 1:1, simply lists the names of patriarchs before the flood without giving any interpretation. After the flood the genealogies are full of 'begots' and 'son ofs' and are treated as literal genealogies. Luke 3 tell us the genealogy was simply what people 'supposed', which gives it as much authority as the claim Jesus was 'one of the prophets of old risen from the dead' Luke 9.19. The verse you refer to Luke 3:38 is even more problematic. Not only is it part of a 'supposed' genealogy but is impossible to take literally unless you are a Mormon.
Gen 1:26 Then God said, "Let us make the Adam in our image, after our likeness. And let them have dominion. male and female he created them, and blessed them, and called their name Adam in the day when they were created.
Ever been married, did your wife take your name because mine did.
The name she was given following the 'one flesh' episode was 'Woman' not Adam.
The man said, "This is now bone of my bones and flesh of my flesh. She will be named woman because she was taken from man. Unfortunately the Hebrew is Ishshah from the other Hebrew word for man Iysh. After the fall she is given another name Eve. Again not Adam. There is no suggestion Eve took her husband's name, but the is plenty of evidence Adam was God's name for the human race.
Every wonder where Israel got it's name?
Because Jacob wrestled with God?
Adam is also of a place in Palestine, Israel is a proper name for Jacob and a name for the nation of Israel. It is common in Scripture to call descendants of one family by the name of their father, or a wife by the name of her husband.
The human race is not called Adam because they are all descended from Adam, but because
adam is a common Hebrew word for man. Even in the narrative about Adam the word is more often used to mean 'the man' rather than as a personal name. The name meant 'man' in the bible before Adam was passing it on to his descendants and it was God name for the human race from the very start.
The question was what do you take literally and what do you take figuratively. You do know that I Cor. 15 is quoted repeatedly right, are we going to take the resurrection literally and Adam figuratively, would Paul?
Yes.
1Cor 15:14 And if Christ has not been raised, then our preaching is in vain and your faith is in vain. 15 We are even found to be misrepresenting God, because we testified about God that he raised Christ, whom he did not raise if it is true that the dead are not raised... 19 If in this life only we have hoped in Christ, we are of all people most to be pitied.
Rom 5:14 Yet death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those whose sinning was not like the transgression of Adam, who was a figure of the one who was to come.
1Tim 2:13 For Adam was formed first, then Eve;
14 and Adam was not deceived, but the woman was deceived and became a transgressor.
15 Yet she will be saved through childbearing--if they continue in faith and love and holiness, with self-control. Is Paul reading of Gen 3 literally here?
I agree it is a more difficult road when we can no longer rely on simple rules distinguishing the literal from the metaphorical, but who ever said try to understand God and his word was easy? One thing we do know is that literalism has failed. We are left with flat earth and geocentrism, which can't be what God intended.