*Matthew 25:42 / *Mt. 25:42 -
This does not require that those people never believed in Jesus Christ, only that they refused to help a Christian in need, without repentance. Also, Matthew 25:42 does not say that they never did a good work of faith. They could have done many good works of faith, and continued to do them to the end. But they had an unrepentant sin of omission (cf. James 4:17): In at least "one" instance (Matthew 25:45), they refused to help a Christian in need, without repentance. And so they had to be ultimately rejected for their unrepentant sin (Hebrews 10:26-27, Matthew 25:41,46).
--
*Matthew 25:46 / *Mt. 25:46 -
The original Greek word (kolasis: G2851) translated as "punishment" means just that. Compare the use of the same Greek word in Acts 4:21.
~
(Re: Can a Christian suffer eternal punishment?)
A Christian can ultimately suffer eternal punishment for unrepentant sin (Hebrews 10:26-29, cf. Matthew 25:41,46), a punishment even worse than death (Hebrews 10:28-29, cf. Revelation 14:10-11, Revelation 20:10,15), the same fate as a non-Christian (Luke 12:45-46), which is the failure to inherit the Kingdom of God (Galatians 5:19-21), the death of the soul (James 5:20, Matthew 10:28).
--
*Matthew 26:3 / *Mt. 26:3 -
(Re: Means that Revelation 11:2's court was the high priest's palace?)
No, for while the original Greek word (aule: G0833) translated as "court" in Revelation 11:2 is translated elsewhere as "palace" (Matthew 26:3) and as "hall" (Luke 22:55) with regard to the Jewish high priest Caiaphas' residence, it is also translated as "hall" (Mark 15:16) with regard to the Romans' Praetorium. Both of these were literal structures in Jerusalem, just as the outer court of the temple in Revelation 11:2 will be a literal structure, the outer part of a third Jewish temple which will be built on the Temple Mount in Jerusalem near the start of the future Tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24 (Revelation 11:1-2, Matthew 24:15, Daniel 11:31,36; 2 Thessalonians 2:4).
(See Revelation 11:1 below)
--
*Matthew 26:19 / *Mt. 26:19 -
This was the first passover of the New Covenant (Matthew 26:28), which New Covenant passover is observed as often as, and wherever on the earth, Christians partake of Communion (1 Corinthians 5:7b-8a; 1 Corinthians 11:26). The letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law's passover (Deuteronomy 16:2-7) has been abolished, along with every other part of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law's commandments (Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14-17, Romans 7:6; 2 Corinthians 3:6-18, Hebrews 7:18-19, Hebrews 10:9b).
(See the "Law" section of Ephesians 2:15 below. Also, see section 3 of Zechariah 14:16 above. And see paragraph 2 of section 2 of Ezekiel chapters 40 to 48 above)
--
*Matthew 26:28 / *Mt. 26:28 -
(Re: Is the Last Supper the Covenant of the Cup?)
The Last Supper covenant is the New Covenant (Jeremiah 31:31-34). For at the Last Supper, Jesus Christ specifically said: "this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins" (Matthew 26:28, Mark 14:24, Luke 22:20). The original Greek word (kainos: G2537) translated as "new" means just that. And the original Greek word (diatheke: G1242) translated as "testament" means "covenant" (Hebrews 12:24). The Church is saved only through the New Covenant (1 Corinthians 11:25; 2 Corinthians 3:6, Hebrews 9:15, Hebrews 12:24).
~
(Re: Is the *Textus Receptus less reliable?) / (*TR)
It has never been proven that the Textus Receptus (the Greek text on which the KJV New Testament is based) is less reliable than any other Greek text, or that it is not the most reliable Greek text of all.
~
(Re: But in the oldest manuscripts, is not "New" Covenant found only in Luke 22:20? And is it not more likely that "New" was wrongly added to Matthew 26:28 and Mark 14:24 in the Textus Receptus to support a preconceived doctrinal bias, than that "New" was skipped in those verses in the oldest manuscripts?)
It's the other way around. For a scribe copying a manuscript is much more likely to skip over words than to add new words that are not even there. One of the key old manuscripts which the NIV, for example, is based on, was found in a trash heap in a monastery on Mount Sinai. No doubt it had been thrown in the trash because it was a such a faulty copy (that is, because it skipped over too many words, and even skipped over whole verses and passages). And yet modern "scholars" try to claim the opposite: that a manuscript thrown in the trash must be one of the "most reliable" of all. Also, just as there is no preconceived doctrinal bias in acknowledging that Luke 22:20 explicitly says that the covenant of the Last Supper is the "New" Covenant, so there is no preconceived doctrinal bias in acknowledging that Matthew 26:28, Mark 14:24, and 1 Corinthians 11:25 (cf. also 2 Corinthians 3:6, Hebrews 9:15, and Hebrews 12:24) also explicitly say that the covenant of the Last Supper is the "New" Covenant. But a preconceived doctrinal bias would want to try to deny that the New Covenant in Luke 22:20, Matthew 26:28, Mark 14:24, 1 Corinthians 11:25, 2 Corinthians 3:6, Hebrews 9:15, and Hebrews 12:24 is the New Covenant.
(See also section 2 of Jeremiah 31:31 above)
--
*Matthew 26:47 / *Mt. 26:47 -
The original Greek word (xulon: G3586) translated as "staves" can refer to clubs, in the sense of heavy wooden staffs used to beat people with.
--
*Matthew 26:52 / *Mt. 26:52 -
See Matthew 5:39 above.
--
*Matthew 26:64 / *Mt. 26:64 -
This does not mean that Jesus Christ's Second Coming (Matthew 24:30-31, Revelation 1:7, Revelation 19:7 to 20:3) had to have occurred while the high priest and the other Christ-rejecters whom Jesus was addressing in Matthew 26:64 were still alive. Instead, Matthew 26:64 means that even though they will have been dead for some 2,000 years, and their souls will be in Hades/hell, they will still see Jesus' Second Coming when it occurs in our future. For the souls of the dead in Hades/hell are able to see things (Luke 16:23).
(See also Acts 1:11 below)
~
While to "see" can be used figuratively (John 9:41), in the case of Matthew 26:64 and Mark 14:62 it is used literally, just as it is used literally in Matthew 24:30, Luke 16:23, and Revelation 1:7.
--
*Matthew 26:67 / *Mt. 26:67 -
The original Greek word (kolaphizo: G2852) translated as "buffeted" can mean "punched".
--
*Matthew 27:51 / *Mt. 27:51 -
(*Veil)
The rending of the veil pictured the opening of the holiest place in heaven to Christians (Hebrews 10:19-22, Hebrews 9:24) by the abolishing of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law's commandments (Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14-17, Romans 7:6; 2 Corinthians 3:6-18, Hebrews 7:18-27, Hebrews 10:9b), and by the establishment of the New Covenant (Matthew 26:28), at the moment that Jesus Christ died on the Cross for our sins (Hebrews 9:15-17, Hebrews 10:19-20, Matthew 27:50-51).
Also, the rending of the veil in Matthew 27:51 did not mean that God no longer dwelt in the second Jewish temple building in Jerusalem, as in Matthew 23:21 and John 2:16. That is why the Church continued to worship God in the second temple even after Jesus Christ's death and physical resurrection (Luke 24:53, Acts 2:46, Acts 22:17).
(See also Matthew 23:38 above)
~
(Re: Did the Old Covenant age not end until 70 AD?)
See Matthew 24:3(space) above.
--
*Matthew 27:52-53 / *Mt. 27:52 -
The original Greek word (egeiro: G1453) translated as "arose" can refer to recently-dead people's bodies being resuscitated back to mortal life, like how Jesus Christ "raised (egeiro)" the recently-dead Lazarus (John 12:1), who was one of Jesus' followers (John 11:11, cf. John 15:14), back to mortal life, by crying out with a loud voice (John 11:43-44). The dead saints who were raised sometime later when they heard Jesus cry out with a loud voice on the Cross (Matthew 27:50-52, John 5:25), and who came out of their graves after Jesus' physical resurrection (Matthew 27:53), could have also been recently-dead followers of Jesus. Their bodies were resuscitated back to mortal life, like happened with Lazarus. For the resurrection of Jesus' followers into immortal physical bodies will not occur until His Second Coming (1 Corinthians 15:21-23,52-53; 1 Thessalonians 4:15-16, Revelation 19:7 to 20:6), which will not occur until immediately after the future Tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24 (Matthew 24:29-31; 2 Thessalonians 2:1-8, Revelation 19:7 to 20:6).
(See also the "harvest" part of 1 Corinthians 15:20 below)
~
(Re: If we say that the resurrected people in Matthew 27:52-53 died again, then do we have to say that the resurrected Jesus died again?)
No, for other Bible verses show that He did not, and never will (e.g. Revelation 1:18).
~
(Re: But nothing says that these people died again)
Matthew 27:52-53 does not require that they did not eventually die again, just as John 11:43-44 and Acts 9:36-40 do not require that Lazarus and Tabitha did not eventually die again.
(See also Hebrews 9:27 below)
~
(Re: They entered the holy city, which after Jesus Christ's resurrection is no longer the earthly Jerusalem)
Note that it is, just as the earthly Jerusalem is the holy city which will be trodden down by non-Christian Gentiles for a literal forty-two months in our future (Revelation 11:2, Luke 21:24b).
--
*Matthew 28:17 / *Mt. 28:17 -
This refers to some of the apostles of Jesus (Matthew 28:16) temporarily doubting His physical resurrection (cf. John 20:25-29), faith in which is required for salvation from hell (Romans 10:9; 1 Corinthians 15:1-4). Also, faith in Jesus as the Christ and as the human/divine Son of God is required for salvation (John 20:31, John 3:36). And faith in Jesus' suffering and dying on the Cross for our sins is required for salvation (Romans 3:25; 1 Corinthians 15:1-3).
(See also 1 Corinthians 15:1 below)
--
*Matthew 28:18 / *Mt. 28:18 -
Jesus Christ is not yet exercising His omnipotence of Matthew 28:18 to the extent of physically subjugating the human rulers of the earth, like He will do during the future Millennium (Psalms 66:3-4, Psalms 72:8-11, Micah 4:1-4, Zechariah 14:9-21), which will begin after His future, Second Coming (Revelation 19:7 to 20:6).
(See also Colossians 1:16 below)
--
*Matthew 28:19 / *Mt. 28:19 -
(Re: Election)
See section 3 of Mark 16:15 below.
--
*Matthew 28:20b / *Mt. 28:20b -
(See section 2 of Acts 1:11 below)
(Re: Feeling *lonely)
If obedient Christians ever feel lonely, they can remember that Jesus Christ is spiritually always right there with them (Matthew 28:20b, Hebrews 13:5b, John 14:21), as is God the Father (John 14:23), and God's Holy Spirit (John 14:16). All three Persons of the Trinity are even living in the hearts of obedient Christians (Ephesians 3:17-19, John 14:23; 2 Corinthians 1:22). And Christians should be gathering together with, and exhorting, other Christians every day (Hebrews 3:13, Hebrews 10:25), at least in some fashion (Matthew 18:20), such as on this forum. So there is no reason for any obedient Christian to ever feel lonely.
--
*Mark 1:41 / *Mk. 1:41 -
(Re: Was Jesus "indignant" [NIV, but not the 1978 NIV] or "moved with compassion" [KJV]?)
The NIV is going off of a Greek textual variant. The NIV indicates in its footnote to Mark 1:41 that many Greek manuscripts refer to Jesus Christ as being filled with compassion instead. The source of the variant could have arisen from confusion between similar words in Aramaic: ethra’em (he was enraged), and ethraham (he had pity on). A copyist who was making a copy of a Greek manuscript could have been comparing it with an older Aramaic manuscript copy, which either contained "ethra’em" (possibly as an error), or which contained "ethraham", but the copyist misread it as "ethra’em", so that he thought that he was correcting the Greek manuscript to match the older Aramaic copy, when in fact he could have been in error himself, or perpetuating an error in the Aramaic copy. Mark could have originally written his Gospel in both Aramaic and Greek, and both original manuscripts could have referred to Jesus Christ as being compassionate instead of indignant in Mark 1:41.
--
*Mark 2:22 / *Mk. 2:22 -
(Re: New wineskins)
See Matthew 9:17 above.
--
*Mark 3:27 / *Mk. 3:27 -
See Matthew 12:25 above.
--
*Mark 3:29 / *Mk. 3:29 -
(Re: *Blasphemy)
Blaspheming God's Holy Spirit (Mark 3:29) means saying something against the Holy Spirit, which is unforgivable even if it is repented from (Mark 3:29), unlike all other blasphemies (Mark 3:28), such as blaspheming Jesus Christ (saying something against Jesus), which is forgivable, like other sins, if it is repented from (Luke 12:10; cf. Luke 13:3, Hebrews 10:26-29).
An example of blaspheming God's Holy Spirit (Mark 3:29) would be to say that a miracle performed by the Holy Spirit (Matthew 12:28) was performed by an evil spirit (Mark 3:22,29-30). So it is possible for even a Christian to blaspheme the Holy Spirit, if, for example, he were to say that another Christian speaking in tongues today (by the Holy Spirit: 1 Corinthians 12:10b-11) is the work of an evil spirit (cf. 1 Corinthians 14:39b; 1 Thessalonians 5:19).
--
*Mark 4:3-20 / *Mk. 4:3 -
See Luke 8:4 below.
--
*Mark 4:11b-12,33-34 / *Mk. 4:11b / *Mk. 4:33 / *Mk. 4:34 -
This means that Jesus Christ talked in unexplained parables to some people so that they would not understand His teachings and become Christians.
~
(Re: Do the verses show that Jesus did not speak plainly when *Pharisees were present?)
Just as Jesus Christ spoke plainly to the Pharisees in Matthew 22:34-41 and Matthew 23:13-33, so He spoke plainly to them in Luke 16:14-31.
Also, the "them" in Mark 4:11b-12,33-34 is not the Pharisees, but the same as the "them" in Mark 4:9, which is the "multitude" in Mark 4:1-2,36. No reference is made to the Pharisees. Similarly, the "them" in Matthew 13:10-15 is not the Pharisees, but the same as the "them" in Matthew 13:3, which is the "multitude" in Matthew 13:2,34,36. Again, no reference is made to the Pharisees.
--
*Mark 4:31 / *Mk. 4:31 -
(Re: Why did Jesus say that the *mustard seed is the smallest?)
It was the smallest seed sown in the earth by His original hearers (Mark 4:31).
--
*Mark 5:7 / *Mk. 5:7 -
The original Greek word (horkizo: G3726) translated as "adjure", like the English word, can mean to make swear an oath.
--
*Mark 6:20 / *Mk. 6:20 -
The original Greek word (suntereo: G4933) translated as "observed" can mean "protected".
--
*Mark 7:4 / *Mk. 7:4 -
(Re: Means that baptism does not have to be by immersion?)
In Mark 7:4 the reference to the "washing" of tables could have involved their immersion in pools of water. For the original Greek word (baptismos: G0909) translated as "washing" is from the Greek word baptizo (G0907), which means to immerse. Also, Christians' "baptism" (baptismos: G0909, and baptisma: G0908) is when Christians are "buried" in the water of baptism (Colossians 2:12, Romans 6:4), and no one is buried by having a few drops of water sprinkled on his forehead. Also, even the Catholic Encyclopedia admits: "In the Latin Church, immersion seems to have prevailed until the twelfth century. After that time it is found in some places even as late as the sixteenth century. Infusion and aspersion, however, were growing common in the thirteenth century and gradually prevailed in the Western Church". On what basis did the Catholic Church (or any other church, for that matter) abandon the requirement of immersion? On the basis of Mark 7:4, which does not even refer to Christian baptism, and which was used by Jesus Christ to warn against replacing God's commandments with our own, man-made traditions (Mark 7:8-9)?
(See Mark 16:16 below)
--
*Mark 7:18-19 / *Mk. 7:18 / *Mk. 7:19 -
This means that under the New Covenant, all foods are in themselves okay for all Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles, to eat. For it shows that no food can defile people.
(See Romans 14:14 below)
~
(Re: But was not the whole issue about eating with unwashed hands?)
That was the immediate issue in Mark 7:1-23, but it was not the whole issue. For in Mark 7:14-16, Jesus Christ broadens the principle to include anything entering the body.
~
Mark 7:18-19 is not contradicting that fornication with a woman can defile a man (1 Corinthians 6:15 to 7:1).
~
(Re: Then must not she be a woman within the man, because only that which comes from within can defile?)
Literal fornication with a woman defiles a man (1 Corinthians 6:15 to 7:1) not because the woman is within the man, but because the lust to commit literal fornication with the woman originated within the man (Mark 7:21, James 1:14-15).
--
*Mark 7:27 / *Mk. 7:27 -
This and Matthew 15:24,26 mean that the children of Israel needed to be ministered to before Gentiles (Matthew 10:5-6), not that Gentiles would never be ministered to, because they would be (John 10:16, Mark 16:15, Romans 1:16, Isaiah 49:6).
(See Romans 1:16 below)
~
The original Greek word (kalos: G2570) translated as "meet" can mean "good" (Mark 9:5).
--
*Mark 8:12 / *Mk. 8:12 -
The original Greek word translated as "sign" is not (as is sometimes claimed) "onoma" (name), but "semeion" (sign) (G4592). For Jesus Christ has given His name to His followers (Matthew 18:20, Mark 16:17, John 14:13-14, Revelation 2:13).
--
*Mark 8:23-25 / *Mk. 8:23 -
Jesus Christ may have had to lay His hands on the blind man a second time because the blind man did not have enough faith to get his sight completely back the first time. People are healed by their faith (Mark 10:52).
--
*Mark 8:35-38 / *Mk. 8:35 -
This means that if Christians wrongly employ their free will to commit apostasy to save their lives during a persecution against Christians (Matthew 24:9-13; 2 Timothy 2:12), then they will ultimately lose their salvation (Mark 8:35) at Jesus Christ's future, Second Coming (Mark 8:38).
(See Hebrews 6:4 below)
--
*Mark 9:1 / *Mk. 9:1 -
See Matthew 16:28 above.
--
*Mark 9:12-13 / *Mk. 9:12 / *Mk. 9:13 -
See Matthew 17:10 above.
--
*Mark 9:24 / *Mk. 9:24 -
(Re: *Losing faith) / (*Faith)
If Christians ever feel that their faith is weakening into unbelief, they can pray to Jesus Christ to help them (Mark 9:24). If they want more faith to come into their hearts, they can read the Bible, or listen to someone reading the Bible out loud (Romans 10:17), whether in person or in a recording. And they can pray to Jesus to increase their faith (Luke 17:5).
If Christians want to keep their hearts from being hardened by the deceitfulness of sin (Hebrews 3:13b), they can fellowship with other Christians every day (Hebrews 3:13), at least in some fashion (Matthew 18:20), such as on this forum, being exhorted by them, and exhorting them in turn (Hebrews 10:25). One way that Christians can lose their faith is by having unrepentant sin in their lives which sears their conscience as with a hot iron (1 Timothy 4:2b), to where they begin to reject the faith, and start listening to lies from demons instead (1 Timothy 4:1-2). In a desire to continue in their lusts without repentance, Christians can reach the point where they become no longer able to endure the sound doctrine of the Bible, and instead seek out and latch onto any teachings which will help to support them in their lusts (2 Timothy 4:3-4).
Ultimately, the only rock-solid base for Christian faith is doing God's will (Matthew 7:24-25, John 7:17, James 1:22). For if Christians remain in disobedience to God without repentance, their faith will come to have, as it were, a foundation of sand, so that their faith will collapse when trouble comes (Matthew 7:26-27, Matthew 13:21, Luke 8:13), such as during the future Tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24 (Matthew 24:9-13). It is Christians' obedience to Jesus Christ's commands which causes Him to continue to manifest Himself to them (John 14:21,23, John 12:26).
-
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Dec 4, 2018
This does not require that those people never believed in Jesus Christ, only that they refused to help a Christian in need, without repentance. Also, Matthew 25:42 does not say that they never did a good work of faith. They could have done many good works of faith, and continued to do them to the end. But they had an unrepentant sin of omission (cf. James 4:17): In at least "one" instance (Matthew 25:45), they refused to help a Christian in need, without repentance. And so they had to be ultimately rejected for their unrepentant sin (Hebrews 10:26-27, Matthew 25:41,46).
--
*Matthew 25:46 / *Mt. 25:46 -
The original Greek word (kolasis: G2851) translated as "punishment" means just that. Compare the use of the same Greek word in Acts 4:21.
~
(Re: Can a Christian suffer eternal punishment?)
A Christian can ultimately suffer eternal punishment for unrepentant sin (Hebrews 10:26-29, cf. Matthew 25:41,46), a punishment even worse than death (Hebrews 10:28-29, cf. Revelation 14:10-11, Revelation 20:10,15), the same fate as a non-Christian (Luke 12:45-46), which is the failure to inherit the Kingdom of God (Galatians 5:19-21), the death of the soul (James 5:20, Matthew 10:28).
--
*Matthew 26:3 / *Mt. 26:3 -
(Re: Means that Revelation 11:2's court was the high priest's palace?)
No, for while the original Greek word (aule: G0833) translated as "court" in Revelation 11:2 is translated elsewhere as "palace" (Matthew 26:3) and as "hall" (Luke 22:55) with regard to the Jewish high priest Caiaphas' residence, it is also translated as "hall" (Mark 15:16) with regard to the Romans' Praetorium. Both of these were literal structures in Jerusalem, just as the outer court of the temple in Revelation 11:2 will be a literal structure, the outer part of a third Jewish temple which will be built on the Temple Mount in Jerusalem near the start of the future Tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24 (Revelation 11:1-2, Matthew 24:15, Daniel 11:31,36; 2 Thessalonians 2:4).
(See Revelation 11:1 below)
--
*Matthew 26:19 / *Mt. 26:19 -
This was the first passover of the New Covenant (Matthew 26:28), which New Covenant passover is observed as often as, and wherever on the earth, Christians partake of Communion (1 Corinthians 5:7b-8a; 1 Corinthians 11:26). The letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law's passover (Deuteronomy 16:2-7) has been abolished, along with every other part of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law's commandments (Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14-17, Romans 7:6; 2 Corinthians 3:6-18, Hebrews 7:18-19, Hebrews 10:9b).
(See the "Law" section of Ephesians 2:15 below. Also, see section 3 of Zechariah 14:16 above. And see paragraph 2 of section 2 of Ezekiel chapters 40 to 48 above)
--
*Matthew 26:28 / *Mt. 26:28 -
(Re: Is the Last Supper the Covenant of the Cup?)
The Last Supper covenant is the New Covenant (Jeremiah 31:31-34). For at the Last Supper, Jesus Christ specifically said: "this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins" (Matthew 26:28, Mark 14:24, Luke 22:20). The original Greek word (kainos: G2537) translated as "new" means just that. And the original Greek word (diatheke: G1242) translated as "testament" means "covenant" (Hebrews 12:24). The Church is saved only through the New Covenant (1 Corinthians 11:25; 2 Corinthians 3:6, Hebrews 9:15, Hebrews 12:24).
~
(Re: Is the *Textus Receptus less reliable?) / (*TR)
It has never been proven that the Textus Receptus (the Greek text on which the KJV New Testament is based) is less reliable than any other Greek text, or that it is not the most reliable Greek text of all.
~
(Re: But in the oldest manuscripts, is not "New" Covenant found only in Luke 22:20? And is it not more likely that "New" was wrongly added to Matthew 26:28 and Mark 14:24 in the Textus Receptus to support a preconceived doctrinal bias, than that "New" was skipped in those verses in the oldest manuscripts?)
It's the other way around. For a scribe copying a manuscript is much more likely to skip over words than to add new words that are not even there. One of the key old manuscripts which the NIV, for example, is based on, was found in a trash heap in a monastery on Mount Sinai. No doubt it had been thrown in the trash because it was a such a faulty copy (that is, because it skipped over too many words, and even skipped over whole verses and passages). And yet modern "scholars" try to claim the opposite: that a manuscript thrown in the trash must be one of the "most reliable" of all. Also, just as there is no preconceived doctrinal bias in acknowledging that Luke 22:20 explicitly says that the covenant of the Last Supper is the "New" Covenant, so there is no preconceived doctrinal bias in acknowledging that Matthew 26:28, Mark 14:24, and 1 Corinthians 11:25 (cf. also 2 Corinthians 3:6, Hebrews 9:15, and Hebrews 12:24) also explicitly say that the covenant of the Last Supper is the "New" Covenant. But a preconceived doctrinal bias would want to try to deny that the New Covenant in Luke 22:20, Matthew 26:28, Mark 14:24, 1 Corinthians 11:25, 2 Corinthians 3:6, Hebrews 9:15, and Hebrews 12:24 is the New Covenant.
(See also section 2 of Jeremiah 31:31 above)
--
*Matthew 26:47 / *Mt. 26:47 -
The original Greek word (xulon: G3586) translated as "staves" can refer to clubs, in the sense of heavy wooden staffs used to beat people with.
--
*Matthew 26:52 / *Mt. 26:52 -
See Matthew 5:39 above.
--
*Matthew 26:64 / *Mt. 26:64 -
This does not mean that Jesus Christ's Second Coming (Matthew 24:30-31, Revelation 1:7, Revelation 19:7 to 20:3) had to have occurred while the high priest and the other Christ-rejecters whom Jesus was addressing in Matthew 26:64 were still alive. Instead, Matthew 26:64 means that even though they will have been dead for some 2,000 years, and their souls will be in Hades/hell, they will still see Jesus' Second Coming when it occurs in our future. For the souls of the dead in Hades/hell are able to see things (Luke 16:23).
(See also Acts 1:11 below)
~
While to "see" can be used figuratively (John 9:41), in the case of Matthew 26:64 and Mark 14:62 it is used literally, just as it is used literally in Matthew 24:30, Luke 16:23, and Revelation 1:7.
--
*Matthew 26:67 / *Mt. 26:67 -
The original Greek word (kolaphizo: G2852) translated as "buffeted" can mean "punched".
--
*Matthew 27:51 / *Mt. 27:51 -
(*Veil)
The rending of the veil pictured the opening of the holiest place in heaven to Christians (Hebrews 10:19-22, Hebrews 9:24) by the abolishing of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law's commandments (Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14-17, Romans 7:6; 2 Corinthians 3:6-18, Hebrews 7:18-27, Hebrews 10:9b), and by the establishment of the New Covenant (Matthew 26:28), at the moment that Jesus Christ died on the Cross for our sins (Hebrews 9:15-17, Hebrews 10:19-20, Matthew 27:50-51).
Also, the rending of the veil in Matthew 27:51 did not mean that God no longer dwelt in the second Jewish temple building in Jerusalem, as in Matthew 23:21 and John 2:16. That is why the Church continued to worship God in the second temple even after Jesus Christ's death and physical resurrection (Luke 24:53, Acts 2:46, Acts 22:17).
(See also Matthew 23:38 above)
~
(Re: Did the Old Covenant age not end until 70 AD?)
See Matthew 24:3(space) above.
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*Matthew 27:52-53 / *Mt. 27:52 -
The original Greek word (egeiro: G1453) translated as "arose" can refer to recently-dead people's bodies being resuscitated back to mortal life, like how Jesus Christ "raised (egeiro)" the recently-dead Lazarus (John 12:1), who was one of Jesus' followers (John 11:11, cf. John 15:14), back to mortal life, by crying out with a loud voice (John 11:43-44). The dead saints who were raised sometime later when they heard Jesus cry out with a loud voice on the Cross (Matthew 27:50-52, John 5:25), and who came out of their graves after Jesus' physical resurrection (Matthew 27:53), could have also been recently-dead followers of Jesus. Their bodies were resuscitated back to mortal life, like happened with Lazarus. For the resurrection of Jesus' followers into immortal physical bodies will not occur until His Second Coming (1 Corinthians 15:21-23,52-53; 1 Thessalonians 4:15-16, Revelation 19:7 to 20:6), which will not occur until immediately after the future Tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24 (Matthew 24:29-31; 2 Thessalonians 2:1-8, Revelation 19:7 to 20:6).
(See also the "harvest" part of 1 Corinthians 15:20 below)
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(Re: If we say that the resurrected people in Matthew 27:52-53 died again, then do we have to say that the resurrected Jesus died again?)
No, for other Bible verses show that He did not, and never will (e.g. Revelation 1:18).
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(Re: But nothing says that these people died again)
Matthew 27:52-53 does not require that they did not eventually die again, just as John 11:43-44 and Acts 9:36-40 do not require that Lazarus and Tabitha did not eventually die again.
(See also Hebrews 9:27 below)
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(Re: They entered the holy city, which after Jesus Christ's resurrection is no longer the earthly Jerusalem)
Note that it is, just as the earthly Jerusalem is the holy city which will be trodden down by non-Christian Gentiles for a literal forty-two months in our future (Revelation 11:2, Luke 21:24b).
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*Matthew 28:17 / *Mt. 28:17 -
This refers to some of the apostles of Jesus (Matthew 28:16) temporarily doubting His physical resurrection (cf. John 20:25-29), faith in which is required for salvation from hell (Romans 10:9; 1 Corinthians 15:1-4). Also, faith in Jesus as the Christ and as the human/divine Son of God is required for salvation (John 20:31, John 3:36). And faith in Jesus' suffering and dying on the Cross for our sins is required for salvation (Romans 3:25; 1 Corinthians 15:1-3).
(See also 1 Corinthians 15:1 below)
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*Matthew 28:18 / *Mt. 28:18 -
Jesus Christ is not yet exercising His omnipotence of Matthew 28:18 to the extent of physically subjugating the human rulers of the earth, like He will do during the future Millennium (Psalms 66:3-4, Psalms 72:8-11, Micah 4:1-4, Zechariah 14:9-21), which will begin after His future, Second Coming (Revelation 19:7 to 20:6).
(See also Colossians 1:16 below)
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*Matthew 28:19 / *Mt. 28:19 -
(Re: Election)
See section 3 of Mark 16:15 below.
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*Matthew 28:20b / *Mt. 28:20b -
(See section 2 of Acts 1:11 below)
(Re: Feeling *lonely)
If obedient Christians ever feel lonely, they can remember that Jesus Christ is spiritually always right there with them (Matthew 28:20b, Hebrews 13:5b, John 14:21), as is God the Father (John 14:23), and God's Holy Spirit (John 14:16). All three Persons of the Trinity are even living in the hearts of obedient Christians (Ephesians 3:17-19, John 14:23; 2 Corinthians 1:22). And Christians should be gathering together with, and exhorting, other Christians every day (Hebrews 3:13, Hebrews 10:25), at least in some fashion (Matthew 18:20), such as on this forum. So there is no reason for any obedient Christian to ever feel lonely.
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*Mark 1:41 / *Mk. 1:41 -
(Re: Was Jesus "indignant" [NIV, but not the 1978 NIV] or "moved with compassion" [KJV]?)
The NIV is going off of a Greek textual variant. The NIV indicates in its footnote to Mark 1:41 that many Greek manuscripts refer to Jesus Christ as being filled with compassion instead. The source of the variant could have arisen from confusion between similar words in Aramaic: ethra’em (he was enraged), and ethraham (he had pity on). A copyist who was making a copy of a Greek manuscript could have been comparing it with an older Aramaic manuscript copy, which either contained "ethra’em" (possibly as an error), or which contained "ethraham", but the copyist misread it as "ethra’em", so that he thought that he was correcting the Greek manuscript to match the older Aramaic copy, when in fact he could have been in error himself, or perpetuating an error in the Aramaic copy. Mark could have originally written his Gospel in both Aramaic and Greek, and both original manuscripts could have referred to Jesus Christ as being compassionate instead of indignant in Mark 1:41.
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*Mark 2:22 / *Mk. 2:22 -
(Re: New wineskins)
See Matthew 9:17 above.
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*Mark 3:27 / *Mk. 3:27 -
See Matthew 12:25 above.
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*Mark 3:29 / *Mk. 3:29 -
(Re: *Blasphemy)
Blaspheming God's Holy Spirit (Mark 3:29) means saying something against the Holy Spirit, which is unforgivable even if it is repented from (Mark 3:29), unlike all other blasphemies (Mark 3:28), such as blaspheming Jesus Christ (saying something against Jesus), which is forgivable, like other sins, if it is repented from (Luke 12:10; cf. Luke 13:3, Hebrews 10:26-29).
An example of blaspheming God's Holy Spirit (Mark 3:29) would be to say that a miracle performed by the Holy Spirit (Matthew 12:28) was performed by an evil spirit (Mark 3:22,29-30). So it is possible for even a Christian to blaspheme the Holy Spirit, if, for example, he were to say that another Christian speaking in tongues today (by the Holy Spirit: 1 Corinthians 12:10b-11) is the work of an evil spirit (cf. 1 Corinthians 14:39b; 1 Thessalonians 5:19).
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*Mark 4:3-20 / *Mk. 4:3 -
See Luke 8:4 below.
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*Mark 4:11b-12,33-34 / *Mk. 4:11b / *Mk. 4:33 / *Mk. 4:34 -
This means that Jesus Christ talked in unexplained parables to some people so that they would not understand His teachings and become Christians.
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(Re: Do the verses show that Jesus did not speak plainly when *Pharisees were present?)
Just as Jesus Christ spoke plainly to the Pharisees in Matthew 22:34-41 and Matthew 23:13-33, so He spoke plainly to them in Luke 16:14-31.
Also, the "them" in Mark 4:11b-12,33-34 is not the Pharisees, but the same as the "them" in Mark 4:9, which is the "multitude" in Mark 4:1-2,36. No reference is made to the Pharisees. Similarly, the "them" in Matthew 13:10-15 is not the Pharisees, but the same as the "them" in Matthew 13:3, which is the "multitude" in Matthew 13:2,34,36. Again, no reference is made to the Pharisees.
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*Mark 4:31 / *Mk. 4:31 -
(Re: Why did Jesus say that the *mustard seed is the smallest?)
It was the smallest seed sown in the earth by His original hearers (Mark 4:31).
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*Mark 5:7 / *Mk. 5:7 -
The original Greek word (horkizo: G3726) translated as "adjure", like the English word, can mean to make swear an oath.
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*Mark 6:20 / *Mk. 6:20 -
The original Greek word (suntereo: G4933) translated as "observed" can mean "protected".
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*Mark 7:4 / *Mk. 7:4 -
(Re: Means that baptism does not have to be by immersion?)
In Mark 7:4 the reference to the "washing" of tables could have involved their immersion in pools of water. For the original Greek word (baptismos: G0909) translated as "washing" is from the Greek word baptizo (G0907), which means to immerse. Also, Christians' "baptism" (baptismos: G0909, and baptisma: G0908) is when Christians are "buried" in the water of baptism (Colossians 2:12, Romans 6:4), and no one is buried by having a few drops of water sprinkled on his forehead. Also, even the Catholic Encyclopedia admits: "In the Latin Church, immersion seems to have prevailed until the twelfth century. After that time it is found in some places even as late as the sixteenth century. Infusion and aspersion, however, were growing common in the thirteenth century and gradually prevailed in the Western Church". On what basis did the Catholic Church (or any other church, for that matter) abandon the requirement of immersion? On the basis of Mark 7:4, which does not even refer to Christian baptism, and which was used by Jesus Christ to warn against replacing God's commandments with our own, man-made traditions (Mark 7:8-9)?
(See Mark 16:16 below)
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*Mark 7:18-19 / *Mk. 7:18 / *Mk. 7:19 -
This means that under the New Covenant, all foods are in themselves okay for all Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles, to eat. For it shows that no food can defile people.
(See Romans 14:14 below)
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(Re: But was not the whole issue about eating with unwashed hands?)
That was the immediate issue in Mark 7:1-23, but it was not the whole issue. For in Mark 7:14-16, Jesus Christ broadens the principle to include anything entering the body.
~
Mark 7:18-19 is not contradicting that fornication with a woman can defile a man (1 Corinthians 6:15 to 7:1).
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(Re: Then must not she be a woman within the man, because only that which comes from within can defile?)
Literal fornication with a woman defiles a man (1 Corinthians 6:15 to 7:1) not because the woman is within the man, but because the lust to commit literal fornication with the woman originated within the man (Mark 7:21, James 1:14-15).
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*Mark 7:27 / *Mk. 7:27 -
This and Matthew 15:24,26 mean that the children of Israel needed to be ministered to before Gentiles (Matthew 10:5-6), not that Gentiles would never be ministered to, because they would be (John 10:16, Mark 16:15, Romans 1:16, Isaiah 49:6).
(See Romans 1:16 below)
~
The original Greek word (kalos: G2570) translated as "meet" can mean "good" (Mark 9:5).
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*Mark 8:12 / *Mk. 8:12 -
The original Greek word translated as "sign" is not (as is sometimes claimed) "onoma" (name), but "semeion" (sign) (G4592). For Jesus Christ has given His name to His followers (Matthew 18:20, Mark 16:17, John 14:13-14, Revelation 2:13).
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*Mark 8:23-25 / *Mk. 8:23 -
Jesus Christ may have had to lay His hands on the blind man a second time because the blind man did not have enough faith to get his sight completely back the first time. People are healed by their faith (Mark 10:52).
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*Mark 8:35-38 / *Mk. 8:35 -
This means that if Christians wrongly employ their free will to commit apostasy to save their lives during a persecution against Christians (Matthew 24:9-13; 2 Timothy 2:12), then they will ultimately lose their salvation (Mark 8:35) at Jesus Christ's future, Second Coming (Mark 8:38).
(See Hebrews 6:4 below)
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*Mark 9:1 / *Mk. 9:1 -
See Matthew 16:28 above.
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*Mark 9:12-13 / *Mk. 9:12 / *Mk. 9:13 -
See Matthew 17:10 above.
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*Mark 9:24 / *Mk. 9:24 -
(Re: *Losing faith) / (*Faith)
If Christians ever feel that their faith is weakening into unbelief, they can pray to Jesus Christ to help them (Mark 9:24). If they want more faith to come into their hearts, they can read the Bible, or listen to someone reading the Bible out loud (Romans 10:17), whether in person or in a recording. And they can pray to Jesus to increase their faith (Luke 17:5).
If Christians want to keep their hearts from being hardened by the deceitfulness of sin (Hebrews 3:13b), they can fellowship with other Christians every day (Hebrews 3:13), at least in some fashion (Matthew 18:20), such as on this forum, being exhorted by them, and exhorting them in turn (Hebrews 10:25). One way that Christians can lose their faith is by having unrepentant sin in their lives which sears their conscience as with a hot iron (1 Timothy 4:2b), to where they begin to reject the faith, and start listening to lies from demons instead (1 Timothy 4:1-2). In a desire to continue in their lusts without repentance, Christians can reach the point where they become no longer able to endure the sound doctrine of the Bible, and instead seek out and latch onto any teachings which will help to support them in their lusts (2 Timothy 4:3-4).
Ultimately, the only rock-solid base for Christian faith is doing God's will (Matthew 7:24-25, John 7:17, James 1:22). For if Christians remain in disobedience to God without repentance, their faith will come to have, as it were, a foundation of sand, so that their faith will collapse when trouble comes (Matthew 7:26-27, Matthew 13:21, Luke 8:13), such as during the future Tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24 (Matthew 24:9-13). It is Christians' obedience to Jesus Christ's commands which causes Him to continue to manifest Himself to them (John 14:21,23, John 12:26).
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