*John 3:16 / *Jn. 3:16 -
(Re: OSAS, and a non-KJV translation)
The translation "whoever believes in him shall not perish" is a mistranslation of the original Greek, in which the verb is in the subjunctive mood. This means that it is referring to a conditional action. So it should be translated as: "may not perish". Other, related verses show that Christians ultimately retaining their salvation is conditional on their continued belief to the end (Hebrews 3:6,12,14, Hebrews 6:4-8, Colossians 1:23), their continued good works to the end (Romans 2:6-8, Matthew 7:21, Matthew 25:26,30), and their continued repentance to the end from every sin that they commit (Hebrews 10:26-29, Luke 12:45-46; 1 Corinthians 9:27). And none of these things are assured, because of free will.
The way to do Christian theology is not to base it on what a single verse says to Christians, but on what the entire Bible says to Christians (2 Timothy 3:16, Matthew 4:4). A verse applicable to Christians in one place in the Bible must be compared with (conditioned by) other, related verses (also applicable to Christians) elsewhere in the Bible (Isaiah 28:9-10; 1 Corinthians 2:13).
(See the "NOSAS" section of Hebrews 3:6 below. And see Isaiah 28:9 above)
~
(Re: But does not the original Greek refer only to a single moment of believing?)
While initial salvation requires only a single moment of believing (John 3:16), other verses... (See "show that Christians" above)
~
(*World)
John 3:16 does not mean that God loves everyone in the world, for He hates nonelect individuals (Romans 9:11-22).
What John 3:16 says does not require that God loves everyone in the world, just as, for example, saying that a person loves TV does not require that that person loves every show on TV.
(See also 1 John 4:8 below)
In the Bible, "the world" does not have to mean everyone in the world. Just as "the world" in John 15:18 and John 16:8-9,20 does not include Christians, so "the world" in John 3:16 does not include nonelect individuals (Romans 9:11-22). And in the case of, for example, John 18:20, it does not include the vast majority of the earth's inhabitants at that time, who did not hear Jesus Christ speak to them during His preaching before His arrest.
~
(Re: But if I say that I love my family, would not it be fair to think that I mean everyone in my family?)
Yes, but not if both previously and subsequently you said that you did not love everyone in your family, just as it is incorrect to think that John 3:16 means that God loves everyone, when both previously, in Malachi 1:3, and subsequently, in Romans 9:13, God said that He does not love everyone. Also, God does not consider nonelect individuals to be His family, but the children of the devil (John 8:42-47, Matthew 13:38-42).
~
(Re: Can anyone believe? / Will everyone be saved?)
John 3:16 means that anyone who believes in Jesus Christ gets initially saved.
It does not mean that everyone can believe in Jesus, for other verses show that some individuals (the nonelect) can never believe in Him (John 6:65, John 8:42-47, John 10:26, Matthew 13:38-42).
Also, it does not mean that everyone will be saved, for other verses show that most individuals will never be saved (Matthew 25:41,46, Matthew 13:38-42, Matthew 7:14, Matthew 22:14).
Also, it does not mean that God originally intended to save everyone. For before the foundation of the world, He intended to save only elect individuals, the chosen (Ephesians 1:4-11; 2 Thessalonians 2:13b, Acts 13:48b).
(See Romans 9:11 below)
~
(Re: God's *only begotten *Son) / (*Begotten)
While there are many sons of God, both angelic (Job 38:7) and human (John 1:12), Jesus Christ is the "only begotten" (only born) Son of God (John 3:16) in that He is the only human ever born without any human father (Luke 1:34-35).
~
(Re: Was John 3:16 not in the original manuscript, but added later, like a note in my Bible says?)
There should not be any such note in any Bible. For it has never been proven that John 3:16 was not in the original manuscript, or that Jesus Christ did not say it.
~
(Re: Perish / G0622 = annihilation?)
No, see Luke 13:3(space) above.
--
*John 3:17 / *Jn. 3:17 -
John 3:17a means that God did not send Jesus Christ into the world to condemn the world before Jesus' future, Second Coming, when Jesus will condemn the world (Revelation 19:11-21; 2 Thessalonians 1:7-10, Luke 12:49).
(See also Matthew 24:48 above)
John 3:17b does not require that God sent Jesus into the world to save everyone in the world, just as saying that a person has come to save Broadway would not require that that person has come to save every show on Broadway.
(See also paragraph 3 of the "World" section of John 3:16 above)
--
*John 3:18b / *Jn. 3:18b -
People are condemned for not believing in Jesus Christ (John 3:18b) only insofar as their not believing in Him means that they have no forgiveness for their sins (John 8:24, Romans 3:25-26), which they committed by their own free will (James 1:13-15). It would not make sense for people to be condemned solely for not believing in Jesus. For that would mean that God could not condemn anyone for their sins without first coming to the earth as Jesus, and nothing requires that He had to come here as Jesus. He could have chosen to never come here as Jesus, and let every sinner be damned.
(See also Romans 9:11 below)
~
(Re: OSAS?)
See John 3:16 above.
John 3:18 means that Christians are not presently condemned like non-Christians are.
(But see Matthew 24:48 above)
~
(Re: Does the original Greek mean that if someone is not a believer now, then he never was?)
No, for in John 3:18b the original Greek does not say: "because he never believed", but says: "because he has not believed", which can include both he who has never believed, and he who believed for awhile, but then stopped believing (Luke 8:13). For an analogy, imagine that someone wanted to see the same move again in a theater where he had paid to see the movie a few days before. But he did not want to pay again. So he tried to just walk into the theater without paying. He was stopped just inside the door by an usher: "Sir, you have not paid to see the movie". This statement was true even though he had previously paid to see the movie, and had seen it, a few days earlier. The statement does not require that he had never paid to see the movie.
In the same way, in John 3:18b, "he hath not believed" does not require that he had never believed. And, indeed, John 3:18b cannot be interpreted to mean that every non-Christian has never believed. For that would contradict other Bible verses which show that Christians can wrongly employ their free will to depart from the Christian faith, to no longer believe, to commit apostasy (Luke 8:13; 1 Timothy 4:1; 2 Timothy 4:3-4; 2 Thessalonians 2:3, Hebrews 3:12, Matthew 13:21), to the ultimate loss of their salvation (Hebrews 6:4-8, John 15:6; 2 Timothy 2:12b, Mark 8:35-38, Hebrews 10:38-39, Matthew 24:9-13).
(See also Hebrews 6:4 below)
--
*John 3:20 / *Jn. 3:20 -
(Re: A non-KJV translation)
The translation "refuses to come" is a mistranslation. For the original Greek simply says that they hated and did not come to the light, lest their deeds should be reproved. There is no original Greek word in John 3:20 which means "refuses" in the sense of them being able to believe in Jesus Christ but refusing to. For no one can believe in Him apart from a miraculous gift of faith from God (John 6:65; 1 Corinthians 3:5b, Ephesians 2:8), which He gives only to elect individuals (Acts 13:48b). Nonelect individuals can never believe in Jesus Christ (John 8:42-47, John 10:26).
(See also Romans 9:11 below)
--
*John 3:21b / *Jn. 3:21b -
(Re: A non-KJV translation)
The translation "so that it may be seen plainly that what they have done has been done in the sight of God" is a mistranslation of the original Greek, which is accurately translated as: "that his deeds may be made manifest, that they are wrought in God" (John 3:21b). This means that Christians are able to do good works only so long as they continue to abide in God (John 15:5). On their own, apart from God, they cannot do anything good (John 15:5b).
--
*John 3:36 / *Jn. 3:36 -
This means that there can be no salvation apart from faith in Jesus Christ, the Son of God. It is not contradicting that salvation can be ultimately lost due to apostasy (John 15:6, Hebrews 6:4-8; 2 Timothy 2:12b), or due to failing to continue to do good works (John 15:2a, Matthew 25:26,30, Romans 2:6-8), or due to unrepentant sin (Luke 12:45-46, Hebrews 10:26-29; 1 Corinthians 9:27).
~
(Re: Aren't believing or repenting not conditions to get saved, because the only condition is Jesus' sacrifice?)
In order to be saved by Jesus Christ's sacrifice on the Cross for our sins, people must repent (Hebrews 10:26-29; 1 Corinthians 9:27), and believe in Jesus (John 3:36, Acts 16:30-31), and His sacrifice (Romans 3:25-26; 1 Corinthians 15:1-4).
~
(Re: Does "wrath" in John 3:36 have to mean hell?)
Yes, for in John 3:36b the people who "shall not see life" shall not see everlasting life, as in ultimate salvation.
And the wrath of God "abiding" on them (John 3:36b) refers to the eternal wrath of the lake of fire (Revelation 14:10-11, Revelation 20:10,15).
--
*John 4:18 / *Jn. 4:18 -
(Re: Means that divorce and remarriage is valid?)
No, see Mark 10:11 above.
--
*John 4:21-24 / *Jn. 4:21 -
This was not contradicting that Christians could worship God in spirit and in truth in the second Jewish temple building in Jerusalem, even after Jesus Christ's sacrificial death on the Cross for our sins, and His physical resurrection (Luke 24:53, Acts 2:46, Acts 22:17). Instead, John 4:21-24 means that under the New Covenant (Matthew 26:28), and up until Jesus' future, Second Coming, people will not be required to go to a temple building in Jerusalem to worship God like they had been required to do at least three times a year under the (now abolished) letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Deuteronomy 16:16; 2 Chronicles 8:12-16). Only after Jesus' future, Second Coming (Zechariah 14:3-4), during His Millennial reign (Zechariah 14:9, Revelation 20:4-6), will people be required to go up once a year to worship the physically returned Jesus in a temple building in Jerusalem (Zechariah 14:16-21).
--
*John 4:22b / *Jn. 4:22b -
See Romans 1:16 below.
--
*John 4:24 / *Jn. 4:24 -
(Re: *Omni)
Both YHWH God the Father, and YHWH God the Son, Jesus Christ, are Spirit (John 4:24, Romans 8:9), although Jesus is also at the same time in a human, flesh and bones body (Luke 24:39, John 1:1,14; 1 John 4:2-3; 2 John 1:7). Both God the Father, and Jesus, are spiritually omnipresent (Psalms 139:7-10, Matthew 28:20b), omniscient (Colossians 2:2b-3, Hebrews 4:13, Proverbs 15:3,11), and omnipotent (Jeremiah 32:17, Matthew 28:18).
(See also Mark 13:32 above)
--
*John 4:42b / *Jn. 4:42b -
This does not mean everyone in the world, for not everyone will be saved (Matthew 25:41,46).
--
*John 5:22 / *Jn. 5:22 -
(Re: Who can *judge?)
Jesus Christ alone can judge ultimately, that is, at one's physical resurrection (John 5:22-30; 2 Corinthians 5:10, Hebrews 9:27-28). Christians can temporally judge whether someone is currently sinning or not (2 Timothy 4:1-2; 1 Corinthians 5:9-13; 1 Corinthians 2:15-16), because Christians have God's Word the Holy Bible (2 Timothy 3:16 to 4:4) and God's Holy Spirit (1 Corinthians 2:10-16).
(See also Matthew 7:1-5 above)
~
(Re: Is John 5:22 only for now? Will God the Father be the judge in Revelation 20:12?)
No, for nothing in the Bible says or requires that John 5:22 is only for now, and not forever.
(See also section 2 of Revelation 20:12 below)
--
*John 5:24 / *Jn. 5:24 -
This refers to salvation in the sense of Christians' present, spiritual salvation, instead of the still-future, ultimate redemption of their physical bodies (Romans 8:23-25). John 5:24 means that a Christian will not ultimately come into condemnation, as in an ultimate loss of salvation, so long as he continues to the end to believe (Hebrews 3:6,12,14, Colossians 1:23, John 15:6), to perform good works (Romans 2:6-8, James 2:24, John 15:2a), and to repent from every sin that he commits (Hebrews 10:26-29, Luke 12:45-46; 1 Corinthians 9:27). All Christians will be judged (2 Corinthians 5:10).
(See Matthew 24:48 above)
--
*John 5:25 / *Jn. 5:25 -
This says: "The hour is coming, and now is [original Greek present tense, not perfect tense], when the dead shall hear the voice of the Son of God: and they that hear shall live". "The hour is coming" refers to the future time of "the first resurrection" (Revelation 20:6), the physical resurrection of the Church into immortality at Jesus Christ's future, Second Coming (Revelation 19:7 to 20:6; 1 Corinthians 15:21-23,51-53; 1 Thessalonians 4:15-16, Romans 8:23-25). In John 5:25, "and now is" referred to the time of Jesus' first coming, when He on the Cross "cried with a loud voice" and some recently-dead people heard it and were resuscitated back to mortal life (Matthew 27:50,52).
(See Matthew 27:52 above)
--
*John 5:28-29 / *Jn. 5:28 / *Jn. 5:29 -
(See section 2 of John 6:39 below)
Regarding John 5:28-29, it was not until later (cf. John 16:12) that Jesus Christ showed the apostle John that there will be two (still unfulfilled) physical resurrections separated by 1,000 years (Revelation 20:5). John 5:28-29 can include both of these. For the original Greek word (hora: G5610) translated as "hour" does not have to mean a literal hour, but can refer figuratively to any period of time. For example, the last "time" in 1 John 2:18, in the original Greek, is the last "hour" (hora), which in this case has been going on for the last 2,000 years. So the "hour" of everyone's still-future, physical resurrection (John 5:28-29) can easily span over a 1,000-year period (Revelation 20:5).
Also, at both "the first resurrection" (Revelation 20:6) and the second resurrection (Revelation 20:5a), some will undergo "the resurrection of life" while others will undergo "the resurrection of damnation" (John 5:29). For "the first resurrection" (Revelation 20:6), at Jesus Christ's future, Second Coming (Revelation 19:7 to 20:6; 1 Corinthians 15:21-23,51-53; 1 Thessalonians 4:15-16), before the future Millennium (Revelation 20:4-6), will be of all those of all times who became Christians (1 Corinthians 15:21-23). And some of them will lose their salvation at the Second Coming (Luke 12:45-46). So their resurrection will be a "resurrection of damnation" (John 5:29), a resurrection "unto shame and everlasting contempt" (Daniel 12:2), because of such things as unrepentant sin (Hebrews 10:26-29), unrepentant laziness (Matthew 25:26,30), or apostasy (Hebrews 6:4-8).
The second resurrection (Revelation 20:5a), at the Great White Throne Judgment (Revelation 20:11-15), after the future Millennium and subsequent events (Revelation 20:7-15), will involve all people of all times who never became Christians, and all those who became Christians during the Millennium (Isaiah 66:19-21). At the Great White Throne Judgment, those Christians of all times who ultimately lost their salvation, and so had their names blotted out of the Book of Life (Revelation 3:5), will be cast into the everlasting suffering of the lake of fire and brimstone along with all non-Christians of all times (Revelation 20:15,10, Matthew 25:41,46, Revelation 14:10-11, Mark 9:45-46).
~
(Re: Is the Greek word "hora" used 92 times in the New Testament? And of those 92, does the KJV translate it as "hour" 89 times, and as "season" three times?)
No, the Greek word "hora" (G5610) is used 109 times in the New Testament. And of those 109, the KJV translates it as "hour" 85 times, as "time" eleven times (including two times in 1 John 2:18, where the last "time" has been going on for the last 2,000 years), as "high time" one time (Romans 13:11), as "hours" (plural) three times (John 11:9, Acts 5:7, Acts 19:34), as "season" three times (John 5:35; 2 Corinthians 7:8, Philemon 1:15), as "day" two times (Mark 6:35, Luke 13:31), as "instant" one time (Luke 2:38), as "short" one time (1 Thessalonians 2:17), as "eventide" one time (along with two other Greek words) (Mark 11:11), and as "in" one time (Luke 2:38).
~
(Re: Is there only one more coming of Jesus?)
Yes, but the fact that there will be only one future coming of Jesus Christ (Revelation 19:7-21) does not contradict that there will be two future resurrections (Revelation 20:5). For Jesus does not have to leave and come back for there to be a second, future resurrection.
~
(Re: Does John 5:28 refer to Michael's voice?)
No, for neither John 5:28-29 nor 1 Thessalonians 4:16 says that the voice of an archangel will raise the dead. For Jesus is not an angel.
(See the "Michael" section of 1 Thessalonians 4:16 below)
--
*John 5:43b / *Jn. 5:43b -
Note that nothing requires that John 5:43b refers to the future Antichrist, instead of to a future, ultra-Orthodox Jewish false "Messiah" in Israel whom the Antichrist will "cut" a seven-year peace treaty with (Daniel 9:26a,27a), after the Antichrist militarily defeats this false Messiah and his followers (Daniel 11:22-23a).
Anyone who receives the future Antichrist (the individual-man aspect of Revelation's "beast") can never be saved (Revelation 14:9-11), whereas there will be Jews who will be saved after the time of the Antichrist, at Jesus Christ's future, Second Coming (Romans 11:26, Zechariah 12:10-14). So not all Jews will receive the Antichrist. They could survive his reign by hiding from him. And those in Jerusalem could be protected from him by God's future, Two Witnesses (of Revelation 11:3,5).
(See also Daniel 9:26 above)
--
*John 6:27 / *Jn. 6:27 -
The original Greek word (brosis: G1035) translated as "meat" can simply mean "food" (2 Corinthians 9:10), which includes fruit. Also, it will be eating the fruit from the literal tree of life (Revelation 2:7) which will give Christians physical immortality, just as it would have given even fallen Adam physical immortality (Genesis 3:22).
(See Revelation 2:7 below)
--
*John 6:28-29 / *Jn. 6:28 / *Jn. 6:29 -
This means that for people to work the works of God, they must believe in Jesus Christ. For apart from Jesus, people cannot work any works of God (John 15:5b). And it is God's will that people do works in addition to faith (Ephesians 2:10).
(See also Romans 2:6 below)
Also, John 6:29 can mean, at the same time, that only God can cause people to become believers in Jesus (John 6:65).
(See Romans 9:11 below)
--
*John 6:31-38 / *Jn. 6:31 -
(*Manna)
The true manna, or true bread from heaven, came down from heaven 2,000 years ago (John 6:31-38). Christians eat it presently when they eat the divine flesh and blood of the bread and wine of Communion (John 6:51-58, Matthew 26:26-28; 1 Corinthians 10:16; 1 Corinthians 11:27-30).
--
*John 6:35,37 / *Jn. 6:35 / *Jn. 6:37 -
(Re: OSAS?)
John 6:37a applies only to initial salvation. For John 6:37b (like John 6:35b) apples only to those Christians who continue to believe (John 15:6, Hebrews 3:6,12,14), do good works (John 15:2a, Romans 2:6-8), and repent from every sin that they commit (Luke 13:3), to the end (Matthew 24:13, Hebrews 10:26-29). For Jesus Christ will ultimately cast out some Christians because of unrepentant sin (1 Corinthians 9:27), or unrepentant laziness (John 15:2a,6), or apostasy (Hebrews 6:4-8), at the judgment of the Church by Jesus at His future, Second Coming (Luke 12:45-46, Matthew 25:26,30, Mark 8:35-38).
~
(Re: Election)
John 6:37a does not mean that God the Father gives to Jesus Christ those who believe in Him only after they believe, but means that the Father gives to Jesus those who will believe in Him even before they believe. Election precedes belief (Acts 13:48b, Romans 11:28). The first part of John 6:37 says: "All that the Father giveth me shall come to me". So the second part refers not to just anyone coming to (believing in) Jesus, but only to anyone who is one of the elect, one of those whom the Father has given to Jesus (John 10:26).
(See Romans 9:11 below)
--
*John 6:39-40 / *Jn. 6:39 / *Jn. 6:40 -
(*Lose / *Lost)
Resurrection in itself does not assure a resurrection to eternal life. For people can be resurrected to damnation (John 5:29). This applies even to elect people. For even though they all get initially saved at some point during their lifetime (Acts 13:48b, John 6:37a), and Jesus Christ will not physically lose any of them, but will physically resurrect all of them (John 6:39) at His future, Second Coming (1 Corinthians 15:21-23), some of them will be resurrected to damnation (John 5:29), to shame and everlasting contempt (Daniel 12:2), because of unrepentant sin (Hebrews 10:26-29), or unrepentant laziness (Matthew 25:26,30), or apostasy (Hebrews 6:4-8). Also, at the subsequent resurrection, at the Great White Throne Judgment, those whose names are not found written in the Book of Life will be physically resurrected only to be judged and cast into the eternal suffering of the lake of fire and brimstone (Revelation 20:11-15).
-
Next entry / Prior / Table of Contents
Dec 8, 2018
(Re: OSAS, and a non-KJV translation)
The translation "whoever believes in him shall not perish" is a mistranslation of the original Greek, in which the verb is in the subjunctive mood. This means that it is referring to a conditional action. So it should be translated as: "may not perish". Other, related verses show that Christians ultimately retaining their salvation is conditional on their continued belief to the end (Hebrews 3:6,12,14, Hebrews 6:4-8, Colossians 1:23), their continued good works to the end (Romans 2:6-8, Matthew 7:21, Matthew 25:26,30), and their continued repentance to the end from every sin that they commit (Hebrews 10:26-29, Luke 12:45-46; 1 Corinthians 9:27). And none of these things are assured, because of free will.
The way to do Christian theology is not to base it on what a single verse says to Christians, but on what the entire Bible says to Christians (2 Timothy 3:16, Matthew 4:4). A verse applicable to Christians in one place in the Bible must be compared with (conditioned by) other, related verses (also applicable to Christians) elsewhere in the Bible (Isaiah 28:9-10; 1 Corinthians 2:13).
(See the "NOSAS" section of Hebrews 3:6 below. And see Isaiah 28:9 above)
~
(Re: But does not the original Greek refer only to a single moment of believing?)
While initial salvation requires only a single moment of believing (John 3:16), other verses... (See "show that Christians" above)
~
(*World)
John 3:16 does not mean that God loves everyone in the world, for He hates nonelect individuals (Romans 9:11-22).
What John 3:16 says does not require that God loves everyone in the world, just as, for example, saying that a person loves TV does not require that that person loves every show on TV.
(See also 1 John 4:8 below)
In the Bible, "the world" does not have to mean everyone in the world. Just as "the world" in John 15:18 and John 16:8-9,20 does not include Christians, so "the world" in John 3:16 does not include nonelect individuals (Romans 9:11-22). And in the case of, for example, John 18:20, it does not include the vast majority of the earth's inhabitants at that time, who did not hear Jesus Christ speak to them during His preaching before His arrest.
~
(Re: But if I say that I love my family, would not it be fair to think that I mean everyone in my family?)
Yes, but not if both previously and subsequently you said that you did not love everyone in your family, just as it is incorrect to think that John 3:16 means that God loves everyone, when both previously, in Malachi 1:3, and subsequently, in Romans 9:13, God said that He does not love everyone. Also, God does not consider nonelect individuals to be His family, but the children of the devil (John 8:42-47, Matthew 13:38-42).
~
(Re: Can anyone believe? / Will everyone be saved?)
John 3:16 means that anyone who believes in Jesus Christ gets initially saved.
It does not mean that everyone can believe in Jesus, for other verses show that some individuals (the nonelect) can never believe in Him (John 6:65, John 8:42-47, John 10:26, Matthew 13:38-42).
Also, it does not mean that everyone will be saved, for other verses show that most individuals will never be saved (Matthew 25:41,46, Matthew 13:38-42, Matthew 7:14, Matthew 22:14).
Also, it does not mean that God originally intended to save everyone. For before the foundation of the world, He intended to save only elect individuals, the chosen (Ephesians 1:4-11; 2 Thessalonians 2:13b, Acts 13:48b).
(See Romans 9:11 below)
~
(Re: God's *only begotten *Son) / (*Begotten)
While there are many sons of God, both angelic (Job 38:7) and human (John 1:12), Jesus Christ is the "only begotten" (only born) Son of God (John 3:16) in that He is the only human ever born without any human father (Luke 1:34-35).
~
(Re: Was John 3:16 not in the original manuscript, but added later, like a note in my Bible says?)
There should not be any such note in any Bible. For it has never been proven that John 3:16 was not in the original manuscript, or that Jesus Christ did not say it.
~
(Re: Perish / G0622 = annihilation?)
No, see Luke 13:3(space) above.
--
*John 3:17 / *Jn. 3:17 -
John 3:17a means that God did not send Jesus Christ into the world to condemn the world before Jesus' future, Second Coming, when Jesus will condemn the world (Revelation 19:11-21; 2 Thessalonians 1:7-10, Luke 12:49).
(See also Matthew 24:48 above)
John 3:17b does not require that God sent Jesus into the world to save everyone in the world, just as saying that a person has come to save Broadway would not require that that person has come to save every show on Broadway.
(See also paragraph 3 of the "World" section of John 3:16 above)
--
*John 3:18b / *Jn. 3:18b -
People are condemned for not believing in Jesus Christ (John 3:18b) only insofar as their not believing in Him means that they have no forgiveness for their sins (John 8:24, Romans 3:25-26), which they committed by their own free will (James 1:13-15). It would not make sense for people to be condemned solely for not believing in Jesus. For that would mean that God could not condemn anyone for their sins without first coming to the earth as Jesus, and nothing requires that He had to come here as Jesus. He could have chosen to never come here as Jesus, and let every sinner be damned.
(See also Romans 9:11 below)
~
(Re: OSAS?)
See John 3:16 above.
John 3:18 means that Christians are not presently condemned like non-Christians are.
(But see Matthew 24:48 above)
~
(Re: Does the original Greek mean that if someone is not a believer now, then he never was?)
No, for in John 3:18b the original Greek does not say: "because he never believed", but says: "because he has not believed", which can include both he who has never believed, and he who believed for awhile, but then stopped believing (Luke 8:13). For an analogy, imagine that someone wanted to see the same move again in a theater where he had paid to see the movie a few days before. But he did not want to pay again. So he tried to just walk into the theater without paying. He was stopped just inside the door by an usher: "Sir, you have not paid to see the movie". This statement was true even though he had previously paid to see the movie, and had seen it, a few days earlier. The statement does not require that he had never paid to see the movie.
In the same way, in John 3:18b, "he hath not believed" does not require that he had never believed. And, indeed, John 3:18b cannot be interpreted to mean that every non-Christian has never believed. For that would contradict other Bible verses which show that Christians can wrongly employ their free will to depart from the Christian faith, to no longer believe, to commit apostasy (Luke 8:13; 1 Timothy 4:1; 2 Timothy 4:3-4; 2 Thessalonians 2:3, Hebrews 3:12, Matthew 13:21), to the ultimate loss of their salvation (Hebrews 6:4-8, John 15:6; 2 Timothy 2:12b, Mark 8:35-38, Hebrews 10:38-39, Matthew 24:9-13).
(See also Hebrews 6:4 below)
--
*John 3:20 / *Jn. 3:20 -
(Re: A non-KJV translation)
The translation "refuses to come" is a mistranslation. For the original Greek simply says that they hated and did not come to the light, lest their deeds should be reproved. There is no original Greek word in John 3:20 which means "refuses" in the sense of them being able to believe in Jesus Christ but refusing to. For no one can believe in Him apart from a miraculous gift of faith from God (John 6:65; 1 Corinthians 3:5b, Ephesians 2:8), which He gives only to elect individuals (Acts 13:48b). Nonelect individuals can never believe in Jesus Christ (John 8:42-47, John 10:26).
(See also Romans 9:11 below)
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*John 3:21b / *Jn. 3:21b -
(Re: A non-KJV translation)
The translation "so that it may be seen plainly that what they have done has been done in the sight of God" is a mistranslation of the original Greek, which is accurately translated as: "that his deeds may be made manifest, that they are wrought in God" (John 3:21b). This means that Christians are able to do good works only so long as they continue to abide in God (John 15:5). On their own, apart from God, they cannot do anything good (John 15:5b).
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*John 3:36 / *Jn. 3:36 -
This means that there can be no salvation apart from faith in Jesus Christ, the Son of God. It is not contradicting that salvation can be ultimately lost due to apostasy (John 15:6, Hebrews 6:4-8; 2 Timothy 2:12b), or due to failing to continue to do good works (John 15:2a, Matthew 25:26,30, Romans 2:6-8), or due to unrepentant sin (Luke 12:45-46, Hebrews 10:26-29; 1 Corinthians 9:27).
~
(Re: Aren't believing or repenting not conditions to get saved, because the only condition is Jesus' sacrifice?)
In order to be saved by Jesus Christ's sacrifice on the Cross for our sins, people must repent (Hebrews 10:26-29; 1 Corinthians 9:27), and believe in Jesus (John 3:36, Acts 16:30-31), and His sacrifice (Romans 3:25-26; 1 Corinthians 15:1-4).
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(Re: Does "wrath" in John 3:36 have to mean hell?)
Yes, for in John 3:36b the people who "shall not see life" shall not see everlasting life, as in ultimate salvation.
And the wrath of God "abiding" on them (John 3:36b) refers to the eternal wrath of the lake of fire (Revelation 14:10-11, Revelation 20:10,15).
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*John 4:18 / *Jn. 4:18 -
(Re: Means that divorce and remarriage is valid?)
No, see Mark 10:11 above.
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*John 4:21-24 / *Jn. 4:21 -
This was not contradicting that Christians could worship God in spirit and in truth in the second Jewish temple building in Jerusalem, even after Jesus Christ's sacrificial death on the Cross for our sins, and His physical resurrection (Luke 24:53, Acts 2:46, Acts 22:17). Instead, John 4:21-24 means that under the New Covenant (Matthew 26:28), and up until Jesus' future, Second Coming, people will not be required to go to a temple building in Jerusalem to worship God like they had been required to do at least three times a year under the (now abolished) letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Deuteronomy 16:16; 2 Chronicles 8:12-16). Only after Jesus' future, Second Coming (Zechariah 14:3-4), during His Millennial reign (Zechariah 14:9, Revelation 20:4-6), will people be required to go up once a year to worship the physically returned Jesus in a temple building in Jerusalem (Zechariah 14:16-21).
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*John 4:22b / *Jn. 4:22b -
See Romans 1:16 below.
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*John 4:24 / *Jn. 4:24 -
(Re: *Omni)
Both YHWH God the Father, and YHWH God the Son, Jesus Christ, are Spirit (John 4:24, Romans 8:9), although Jesus is also at the same time in a human, flesh and bones body (Luke 24:39, John 1:1,14; 1 John 4:2-3; 2 John 1:7). Both God the Father, and Jesus, are spiritually omnipresent (Psalms 139:7-10, Matthew 28:20b), omniscient (Colossians 2:2b-3, Hebrews 4:13, Proverbs 15:3,11), and omnipotent (Jeremiah 32:17, Matthew 28:18).
(See also Mark 13:32 above)
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*John 4:42b / *Jn. 4:42b -
This does not mean everyone in the world, for not everyone will be saved (Matthew 25:41,46).
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*John 5:22 / *Jn. 5:22 -
(Re: Who can *judge?)
Jesus Christ alone can judge ultimately, that is, at one's physical resurrection (John 5:22-30; 2 Corinthians 5:10, Hebrews 9:27-28). Christians can temporally judge whether someone is currently sinning or not (2 Timothy 4:1-2; 1 Corinthians 5:9-13; 1 Corinthians 2:15-16), because Christians have God's Word the Holy Bible (2 Timothy 3:16 to 4:4) and God's Holy Spirit (1 Corinthians 2:10-16).
(See also Matthew 7:1-5 above)
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(Re: Is John 5:22 only for now? Will God the Father be the judge in Revelation 20:12?)
No, for nothing in the Bible says or requires that John 5:22 is only for now, and not forever.
(See also section 2 of Revelation 20:12 below)
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*John 5:24 / *Jn. 5:24 -
This refers to salvation in the sense of Christians' present, spiritual salvation, instead of the still-future, ultimate redemption of their physical bodies (Romans 8:23-25). John 5:24 means that a Christian will not ultimately come into condemnation, as in an ultimate loss of salvation, so long as he continues to the end to believe (Hebrews 3:6,12,14, Colossians 1:23, John 15:6), to perform good works (Romans 2:6-8, James 2:24, John 15:2a), and to repent from every sin that he commits (Hebrews 10:26-29, Luke 12:45-46; 1 Corinthians 9:27). All Christians will be judged (2 Corinthians 5:10).
(See Matthew 24:48 above)
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*John 5:25 / *Jn. 5:25 -
This says: "The hour is coming, and now is [original Greek present tense, not perfect tense], when the dead shall hear the voice of the Son of God: and they that hear shall live". "The hour is coming" refers to the future time of "the first resurrection" (Revelation 20:6), the physical resurrection of the Church into immortality at Jesus Christ's future, Second Coming (Revelation 19:7 to 20:6; 1 Corinthians 15:21-23,51-53; 1 Thessalonians 4:15-16, Romans 8:23-25). In John 5:25, "and now is" referred to the time of Jesus' first coming, when He on the Cross "cried with a loud voice" and some recently-dead people heard it and were resuscitated back to mortal life (Matthew 27:50,52).
(See Matthew 27:52 above)
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*John 5:28-29 / *Jn. 5:28 / *Jn. 5:29 -
(See section 2 of John 6:39 below)
Regarding John 5:28-29, it was not until later (cf. John 16:12) that Jesus Christ showed the apostle John that there will be two (still unfulfilled) physical resurrections separated by 1,000 years (Revelation 20:5). John 5:28-29 can include both of these. For the original Greek word (hora: G5610) translated as "hour" does not have to mean a literal hour, but can refer figuratively to any period of time. For example, the last "time" in 1 John 2:18, in the original Greek, is the last "hour" (hora), which in this case has been going on for the last 2,000 years. So the "hour" of everyone's still-future, physical resurrection (John 5:28-29) can easily span over a 1,000-year period (Revelation 20:5).
Also, at both "the first resurrection" (Revelation 20:6) and the second resurrection (Revelation 20:5a), some will undergo "the resurrection of life" while others will undergo "the resurrection of damnation" (John 5:29). For "the first resurrection" (Revelation 20:6), at Jesus Christ's future, Second Coming (Revelation 19:7 to 20:6; 1 Corinthians 15:21-23,51-53; 1 Thessalonians 4:15-16), before the future Millennium (Revelation 20:4-6), will be of all those of all times who became Christians (1 Corinthians 15:21-23). And some of them will lose their salvation at the Second Coming (Luke 12:45-46). So their resurrection will be a "resurrection of damnation" (John 5:29), a resurrection "unto shame and everlasting contempt" (Daniel 12:2), because of such things as unrepentant sin (Hebrews 10:26-29), unrepentant laziness (Matthew 25:26,30), or apostasy (Hebrews 6:4-8).
The second resurrection (Revelation 20:5a), at the Great White Throne Judgment (Revelation 20:11-15), after the future Millennium and subsequent events (Revelation 20:7-15), will involve all people of all times who never became Christians, and all those who became Christians during the Millennium (Isaiah 66:19-21). At the Great White Throne Judgment, those Christians of all times who ultimately lost their salvation, and so had their names blotted out of the Book of Life (Revelation 3:5), will be cast into the everlasting suffering of the lake of fire and brimstone along with all non-Christians of all times (Revelation 20:15,10, Matthew 25:41,46, Revelation 14:10-11, Mark 9:45-46).
~
(Re: Is the Greek word "hora" used 92 times in the New Testament? And of those 92, does the KJV translate it as "hour" 89 times, and as "season" three times?)
No, the Greek word "hora" (G5610) is used 109 times in the New Testament. And of those 109, the KJV translates it as "hour" 85 times, as "time" eleven times (including two times in 1 John 2:18, where the last "time" has been going on for the last 2,000 years), as "high time" one time (Romans 13:11), as "hours" (plural) three times (John 11:9, Acts 5:7, Acts 19:34), as "season" three times (John 5:35; 2 Corinthians 7:8, Philemon 1:15), as "day" two times (Mark 6:35, Luke 13:31), as "instant" one time (Luke 2:38), as "short" one time (1 Thessalonians 2:17), as "eventide" one time (along with two other Greek words) (Mark 11:11), and as "in" one time (Luke 2:38).
~
(Re: Is there only one more coming of Jesus?)
Yes, but the fact that there will be only one future coming of Jesus Christ (Revelation 19:7-21) does not contradict that there will be two future resurrections (Revelation 20:5). For Jesus does not have to leave and come back for there to be a second, future resurrection.
~
(Re: Does John 5:28 refer to Michael's voice?)
No, for neither John 5:28-29 nor 1 Thessalonians 4:16 says that the voice of an archangel will raise the dead. For Jesus is not an angel.
(See the "Michael" section of 1 Thessalonians 4:16 below)
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*John 5:43b / *Jn. 5:43b -
Note that nothing requires that John 5:43b refers to the future Antichrist, instead of to a future, ultra-Orthodox Jewish false "Messiah" in Israel whom the Antichrist will "cut" a seven-year peace treaty with (Daniel 9:26a,27a), after the Antichrist militarily defeats this false Messiah and his followers (Daniel 11:22-23a).
Anyone who receives the future Antichrist (the individual-man aspect of Revelation's "beast") can never be saved (Revelation 14:9-11), whereas there will be Jews who will be saved after the time of the Antichrist, at Jesus Christ's future, Second Coming (Romans 11:26, Zechariah 12:10-14). So not all Jews will receive the Antichrist. They could survive his reign by hiding from him. And those in Jerusalem could be protected from him by God's future, Two Witnesses (of Revelation 11:3,5).
(See also Daniel 9:26 above)
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*John 6:27 / *Jn. 6:27 -
The original Greek word (brosis: G1035) translated as "meat" can simply mean "food" (2 Corinthians 9:10), which includes fruit. Also, it will be eating the fruit from the literal tree of life (Revelation 2:7) which will give Christians physical immortality, just as it would have given even fallen Adam physical immortality (Genesis 3:22).
(See Revelation 2:7 below)
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*John 6:28-29 / *Jn. 6:28 / *Jn. 6:29 -
This means that for people to work the works of God, they must believe in Jesus Christ. For apart from Jesus, people cannot work any works of God (John 15:5b). And it is God's will that people do works in addition to faith (Ephesians 2:10).
(See also Romans 2:6 below)
Also, John 6:29 can mean, at the same time, that only God can cause people to become believers in Jesus (John 6:65).
(See Romans 9:11 below)
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*John 6:31-38 / *Jn. 6:31 -
(*Manna)
The true manna, or true bread from heaven, came down from heaven 2,000 years ago (John 6:31-38). Christians eat it presently when they eat the divine flesh and blood of the bread and wine of Communion (John 6:51-58, Matthew 26:26-28; 1 Corinthians 10:16; 1 Corinthians 11:27-30).
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*John 6:35,37 / *Jn. 6:35 / *Jn. 6:37 -
(Re: OSAS?)
John 6:37a applies only to initial salvation. For John 6:37b (like John 6:35b) apples only to those Christians who continue to believe (John 15:6, Hebrews 3:6,12,14), do good works (John 15:2a, Romans 2:6-8), and repent from every sin that they commit (Luke 13:3), to the end (Matthew 24:13, Hebrews 10:26-29). For Jesus Christ will ultimately cast out some Christians because of unrepentant sin (1 Corinthians 9:27), or unrepentant laziness (John 15:2a,6), or apostasy (Hebrews 6:4-8), at the judgment of the Church by Jesus at His future, Second Coming (Luke 12:45-46, Matthew 25:26,30, Mark 8:35-38).
~
(Re: Election)
John 6:37a does not mean that God the Father gives to Jesus Christ those who believe in Him only after they believe, but means that the Father gives to Jesus those who will believe in Him even before they believe. Election precedes belief (Acts 13:48b, Romans 11:28). The first part of John 6:37 says: "All that the Father giveth me shall come to me". So the second part refers not to just anyone coming to (believing in) Jesus, but only to anyone who is one of the elect, one of those whom the Father has given to Jesus (John 10:26).
(See Romans 9:11 below)
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*John 6:39-40 / *Jn. 6:39 / *Jn. 6:40 -
(*Lose / *Lost)
Resurrection in itself does not assure a resurrection to eternal life. For people can be resurrected to damnation (John 5:29). This applies even to elect people. For even though they all get initially saved at some point during their lifetime (Acts 13:48b, John 6:37a), and Jesus Christ will not physically lose any of them, but will physically resurrect all of them (John 6:39) at His future, Second Coming (1 Corinthians 15:21-23), some of them will be resurrected to damnation (John 5:29), to shame and everlasting contempt (Daniel 12:2), because of unrepentant sin (Hebrews 10:26-29), or unrepentant laziness (Matthew 25:26,30), or apostasy (Hebrews 6:4-8). Also, at the subsequent resurrection, at the Great White Throne Judgment, those whose names are not found written in the Book of Life will be physically resurrected only to be judged and cast into the eternal suffering of the lake of fire and brimstone (Revelation 20:11-15).
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Dec 8, 2018