Notes: John 10:28 To John 16:1

*John 10:28-29 / *Jn. 10:28 / *Jn. 10:29 -

(*Hand)

John 10:28-29 means that Christians will never spiritually perish so long as they remain in God's hand, and that no one outside of a Christian can ever take him or her out of God's hand. But John 10:28-29 does not mean that Christians are imprisoned in God's hand, that they cannot wrongly employ their free will to jump out of God's hand themselves, such as by committing apostasy, to the ultimate loss of their salvation (Hebrews 6:4-8, John 15:6; 2 Timothy 2:12). Also, John 10:28-29 is not contradicting that God Himself can in the end cast Christians out of His hand, that they can in the end lose their salvation, if they do not continue in His goodness (Romans 11:20-22), such as by wrongly employing their free will to commit a sin without repentance (Hebrews 10:26-29; 1 Corinthians 9:27, Luke 12:45-46), or by becoming utterly lazy without repentance (Matthew 25:26,30, John 15:2a, Romans 2:6-8).

Also, John 10:28-29 does not mean that a Christian's will is kept in God's hand in the sense that a Christian cannot wrongly employ his will to the ultimate loss of his salvation. For any such "kept" will would be nothing but a destroyed will. It would make Christians like someone who has been lobotomized, strait-jacketed, drugged, and locked up in a cell. Thank God that He does not do that to Christians, but leaves them as free people with free will. And because He does, they themselves have to choose each and every day for the rest of their lives to deny themselves, to take up their crosses themselves, and to continue to follow Jesus Christ (Luke 9:23) to the end. And the Bible gives no assurance that every Christian will choose to do that (Hebrews 10:26-29, Hebrews 6:4-8, John 15:2a).

(See the "NOSAS" section of Hebrews 3:6 below)

~

(Re: How can you place any condition on John 10:28 when there is no condition in the verse or its immediate context?)

Note that there does not have to be any condition in John 10:28 itself or its immediate context for there to be conditions placed on John 10:28 by other verses elsewhere in the Bible. For example, compare how Jesus Christ put a condition on the verse in Matthew 4:6 (Psalms 91:12) with the verse in Matthew 4:7 (Deuteronomy 6:16).

(See also Isaiah 28:9 above)

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*John 10:30 / *Jn. 10:30 -

This means that Jesus Christ is one YHWH God with God the Father. This, in light of John 17:21-23, does not mean that the Church will become YHWH. For John 17:21-23 refers to Christians becoming one with each other, as in one body of Christ (Ephesians 4:4, Colossians 1:18).

(See John 1:1,14 above)

--

*John 10:34 / *Jn. 10:34 -

John 10:34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods [theos: G2316]?

This, like the Hebrew of Psalms 82:6, does mean "gods", but only in the sense of humans knowing good and evil (Genesis 3:5), not in the sense of them having life in themselves, like God alone does (John 5:26; 1 Timothy 6:16). For Psalms 82:6-7 goes on to say that we human "gods" will still die like humans (Psalms 82:7). For no mere human can keep himself alive forever (Psalms 22:29c). We need God to give us immortality through faith in Jesus Christ (Romans 6:23; 2 Timothy 1:10). Also, the future, eternal suffering of all non-Christians must not be considered as immortality, but as an eternal, conscious, ongoing, second death (Revelation 21:8, Revelation 20:10,15, Revelation 14:10-11, Matthew 25:41,46, Mark 9:45-46).

--

*John 10:36 / *Jn. 10:36 -

The Bible does not say when Jesus Christ, as a man, first knew that He is the Son of God (John 10:36). But Mary His mother could have told Him as a young boy of His virgin birth (Luke 1:35). And by at least the age of twelve, Jesus had full knowledge of His divine Sonship (Luke 2:42-50).

(Compare Luke 2:49 above)

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*John 11:25-26 / *Jn. 11:25 -

See John 3:16 or John 3:36 above.

--

*John 11:43-44 / *Jn. 11:43 -

(Re: It does not say that Lazarus eventually died again)

Note that the Bible does not have to say that something happened for it to have happened. For example, the Bible does not say that the apostle Paul died, but he did (Tertullian, Scorpiace, chapter 15). Also, nothing requires that Lazarus was immortal after John 11:43-44, just as nothing requires, for example, that people who die today on an operating table and are brought back to life by restarting their heart become immortal. But the Bible does require that Lazarus was mortal after John 11:43-44, because Jesus Christ being the firstfruits of the physical resurrection into immortality (1 Corinthians 15:20-23,52-54) means that Jesus was the first person to be physically resurrected into immortality. To say that anyone was physically resurrected into immortality before Jesus would rob Him of His preeminence in this regard (Colossians 1:18).

(Compare Matthew 27:52 above)

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*John 11:52 / *Jn. 11:52 -

This refers to the elect Gentiles who would become Christians along with the elect Jews (Romans 9:8-24).

--

*John 12:15 / *Jn. 12:15 -

(Re: Did the non-Christian Jews reject Jesus Christ at His first coming because they interpreted the Bible's prophecies literally?)

No, that was not the problem. Instead, they did not see the contrast between the Old Testament prophecies regarding the Messiah's/the Christ's coming: with some prophecies showing Him coming to be meekly crucified for our sins (Isaiah 53, Psalms 22), and other prophecies showing Him physically descending from heaven to wage war and to physically reign on the earth (Zechariah 14, Micah 4:1-4), which will be fulfilled in our future.

Also, people did not recognize, for example, Zechariah 9:9's literal fulfillment of the Messiah/Christ humbly riding into Jerusalem on a donkey (John 12:14-16, cf. Luke 19:33-44), and, for other examples, that Zechariah 12:10 and Psalms 34:20 were literal (John 19:34-37), just as Matthew 20:19, Mark 10:34, and Luke 24:7 were literal (1 Corinthians 15:3-4).

(See also the "Literal" section of Revelation chapters 6 to 22 (Overview) below. And see section 2 of Luke 3:4 above)

--

*John 12:25 / *Jn. 12:25 -

(Re: What if I hate my life?)

See the "What if I hate my life?" section of 1 Corinthians 15:1 below.

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*John 12:31b / *Jn. 12:31b -

This means that because of what Jesus Christ did at His first coming (Hebrews 2:14), Satan "shall", in our future, first be cast down out of heaven permanently after losing a mid-tribulation war in heaven (Revelation 12:7-17). Then, later, at Jesus' Second Coming (Revelation 19:7 to 20:3), Satan will be bound by an angel and cast down beneath the earth's surface, locked within the literal Bottomless Pit for 1,000 years (Revelation 20:2-3). Then, sometime after the 1,000 years and the subsequent Gog/Magog rebellion (Revelation 20:7-9), Satan will be cast into the lake of fire to remain there forever (Revelation 20:10). The lake of fire will be outside New Jerusalem (Revelation 22:15, Revelation 21:8) on the New Earth (Revelation 21:1-8), as in a new surface for the earth.

(See also Colossians 2:15 below)

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*John 12:32 / *Jn. 12:32 -

(All / G3956)

See John 1:7 above.

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*John 12:39-40 / *Jn. 12:39 -

(Re: If someone says that God turns away from the wicked, is not that like saying that the sun hides itself from the blind?)

No, it is like saying that God has blinded the wicked (John 12:39-40, John 9:39, Deuteronomy 28:28-29).

--

*John 12:48 / *Jn. 12:48 -

(Last day)

See section 2 of John 6:39 above.

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*John 14:1-3 / *Jn. 14:1 -

Note that there is no pre-tribulation-rapture idea in John 14:2-3, just as there is no "take you back" (somewhere). Instead, there is only a coming-again of Jesus Christ (His future, Second Coming), and then a receiving of the Church unto Himself. Also, the pre-tribulation-rapture view cannot (as is sometimes done) claim that the rapture is referred to only by the apostle Paul, and then admit that John 14:3 refers to the rapture.

John 14:2 means that one of the reasons that Jesus Christ left the earth at the end of His first coming was to prepare a place for the Church in the literal city of New Jerusalem, which is God the Father's house in heaven (Revelation 21:2-3). John 14:3 means that Jesus' leaving to prepare a place for the Church indicates that He is not done with the Church, but will come back to it. John 14:3 means that the Church will be received to Jesus where He will be first at His Second Coming, which will be in the sky (1 Thessalonians 4:17), before He lands on the earth at His Second Coming (1 Thessalonians 4:15-17; 2 Thessalonians 2:1-8, Matthew 24:30-31, Zechariah 14:3-21), which will not occur until immediately after the future Tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24 (Matthew 24:29-31; 2 Thessalonians 2:1-8, Revelation 19:7 to 20:6).

The Church will live in its place in New Jerusalem (Revelation 21:24 to 22:5) on the New Earth (Revelation 21:1-3), as in a new surface for the earth, sometime after the future Millennium and subsequent events (Revelation 20:7-15). For during the Millennium, the physically resurrected Church will rule on the present earth with the returned Jesus Christ for 1,000 years (Revelation 20:4-6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29, Zechariah 14:3-21).

Also, the Church has already come to God the Father's house, New Jerusalem, which is currently in heaven, in the spiritual sense of coming under the New Covenant (Hebrews 12:22-24, Galatians 4:24-26, Matthew 26:28). And the souls of obedient people in the Church go to God the Father's house when they die, for their still-conscious souls go into heaven to be with Jesus Christ when they die (Philippians 1:21,23; 2 Corinthians 5:8). And they go into paradise (Luke 23:43), which is in heaven (2 Corinthians 12:2b,4), in the city of New Jerusalem (Revelation 2:7 and Revelation 22:2).

~

(Re: Does Jewish tradition require that the bride go to the groom's father's house for the marriage?)

The Bible itself does not say or require that Jesus Christ is going to take the Church to God the Father's house for the marriage. And we must not run after Jewish traditions which are not taught by the Bible (Mark 7:13, Colossians 2:8). Just as Isaac did not take Rebekah into his father's house, but into his mother's house (Genesis 24:67); and just as Jacob did not take Leah or Rachel into his father's house, but married them in a faraway land (Genesis 29:23-28); so nothing requires that Jesus has to marry the Church in God the Father's house in the third heaven, instead of in the clouds of the sky, the first heaven, at His future, Second Coming (1 Thessalonians 4:17, Revelation 19:7).

(See Matthew 25:1-13 above, and 2 Corinthians 12:2 below)

--

*John 14:6 / *Jn. 14:6 -

Jesus Christ is the only way to God the Father (John 14:6, John 3:36, Acts 4:12; 2 John 1:9; 1 Timothy 2:5).

~

(Re: Are people delusional who say that they know the absolute truth?)

People who know that Jesus of Nazareth is the Christ and the human/divine Son of God, and who believe that the entire Bible is from God, know the absolute truth (John 14:6, John 20:31; 1 Corinthians 15:1-4; 2 Timothy 3:15 to 4:4), whereas people who reject Jesus Christ and the Bible are deluded, and taken captive spiritually by Satan (2 Timothy 2:26; 2 Corinthians 4:4, Revelation 12:9), no matter how right and practically-good their current, false religion or atheism may seem to them (Proverbs 14:12, Proverbs 28:26, Jeremiah 17:9). If they do not get saved by becoming Biblical Christians, then they will end up in eternal suffering in the lake of fire and brimstone, along with Satan and his fallen angels (Matthew 25:41,46, Revelation 20:10,15, Revelation 14:10-11, Mark 9:45b-46).

(See also the "reason" section of Ecclesiastes 11:5 above)

~

(Re: Does NOSAS, the idea that we are not once-saved-always-saved, make people their own *savior?)

No, for only Jesus Christ can save people from hell (John 14:6, John 3:36), by His sacrifice on the Cross for our sins (Romans 3:25), and by the ability that He gives Christians to continue in the faith (Hebrews 12:2), to continue to do good works (John 15:5), to continue to repent from every sin that they commit (John 8:34-36), and to overcome to the end (Revelation 12:11), by their own choice. All NOSAS does is admit the fact that there is no assurance that every Christian will choose to do all of these things to the end.

OSAS ultimately negates free will.

(See the "NOSAS" section of Hebrews 3:6 below)

--

*John 14:15 / *Jn. 14:15 -

This does not say that Christians have to keep the letter of the commandments of the Old Covenant Mosaic law, which has been abolished (2 Corinthians 3:6-13, Ephesians 2:15-16, Romans 7:6, Hebrews 7:18-19, Hebrews 10:9b). For in John 14:15, Jesus Christ is not referring to the Old Covenant commandments, which came through Moses (John 1:17), but to His own, New Covenant/New Testament commandments, such as those He gave in the Sermon on the Mount (Matthew 5:19 to 7:29) and through the apostle Paul (1 Corinthians 14:37). The righteousness of the New Covenant commandments exceeds that of the Old Covenant commandments (Matthew 5:20-48).

(See the "Law" section of Ephesians 2:15 below. Also, see the "stricter" section of Matthew 5:19 above)

--

*John 14:16-17 / *Jn. 14:16 -

(Re: OSAS?)

Those whom God has initially saved from hell, and given His Holy Spirit to, can still wrongly employ their free will to quench the Spirit (1 Thessalonians 5:19) and to depart from God, to the ultimate loss of their salvation (Hebrews 6:4-8).

(See Hebrews 6:4 below)

~

(Re: Apostles only?)

The principles of John 14:16-18,26a and John 16:13 do not apply only to the apostles of Jesus Christ, but to everyone in the Church (1 John 2:27; 1 Corinthians 12:13-14; 2 Timothy 3:15-17; 1 Corinthians 12:8-12; 2 Corinthians 1:3-7).

--

*John 14:18,23b / *Jn. 14:18 -

This means that Jesus Christ would come by His Holy Spirit, the Comforter (John 14:16-18), who would come with power upon His disciples at the Pentecost in Acts 2 (Luke 24:49, Acts 2:1-4). Similarly, it is by His Holy Spirit that Jesus could say to His disciples: "I am with you always, even unto the end of the world" (Matthew 28:20b, Hebrews 13:5b). And it is by His (and God the Father's) Holy Spirit that Jesus has always made His abode (along with God the Father) within obedient Christians (John 14:23, Ephesians 3:17-19, Romans 8:9-10). And it is by His Holy Spirit that Jesus has always manifested Himself spiritually to obedient Christians (John 14:21; 2 Corinthians 3:18).

--

*John 14:19a / *Jn. 14:19a -

(Re: Full preterism?)

John 14:19a meant that the non-Christian world would not see Jesus Christ physically from the time of His burial at His first coming (John 16:20a) until His future, physical, Second Coming in Matthew 24:30b, Revelation 1:7, and Revelation 19:11-21; just as John 16:10b meant that Christians would not see Jesus physically from the time of His physical resurrection at His first coming (John 14:19b, John 16:16,20b,22) until His future, physical, Second Coming in 1 Thessalonians 4:14-17, 2 Thessalonians 2:1, Matthew 24:30b-31, John 14:3, Revelation 1:7, Revelation 19:7 to 20:6, and 1 Corinthians 15:21-23,51-58.

(See also Acts 1:11 and John 16:10b below)

--

*John 14:21-24 / *Jn. 14:21 -

Christians obey God out of both their love for Him (John 14:21-24; 1 John 5:3) and their fear of Him (Romans 11:20-22; 1 Peter 1:17, Philippians 2:12), their fear of ultimately losing their salvation from hell if they wrongly employ their free will to do something like committing unrepentant sin (Hebrews 10:26-29; 1 Corinthians 9:27, Luke 12:45-46), or if they become utterly lazy without repentance (Matthew 25:26,30, John 15:2a, Romans 2:6-8).

In John 14:21,23, when Jesus Christ talks about Christians needing to obey Him if they want God to love them (see also what John 15:10 says), He is referring to how Christians must keep themselves in the love of God (Jude 1:21), and continue in His goodness (Romans 11:22), by continuing in faithful obedience to him, if they want to be saved from hell in the end (Romans 2:6-8, Hebrews 5:9).

(See also Jude 1:21 below)

--

*John 14:26 / *Jn. 14:26 -

This and John 16:7 meant that God the Father, and Jesus Christ, would send their Holy Spirit into the hearts of Christians generally (John 7:39), beginning at the Pentecost in Acts 2. John 14:26 and John 16:7 are not contradicting that the Holy Spirit has always been, and will always be, omnipresent in the world (Psalms 139:7-10).

(See also John 7:39 above)

~

(Re: Gospels as *transcripts)

The Gospels can be a true, word-for-word record of what Jesus Christ said (e.g. Matthew 4:7) and an accurate account of what He did (e.g. Luke 9:42-43), because they were written by eyewitnesses of Jesus (e.g. John 19:35, John 21:24) or their immediate followers (Luke 1:1-2). And the eyewitnesses were miraculously helped by God's Holy Spirit to remember what Jesus said and did (John 14:26b, John 12:16). Also, the Gospels are scripture, meaning that they were written by the inspiration of God (2 Timothy 3:16), meaning that they were not written by the will of man, but by holy men as they were moved by God's Holy Spirit to write them (cf. 2 Peter 1:21). So the words of the Gospels are what God's Holy Spirit Himself spoke (cf. Acts 1:16, Acts 28:25b). So there is no reason to believe the mistaken, man-made idea that the Gospels are not transcripts of what Jesus said and did.

~

(Re: But what about the word-variations in the parable of the sower in the Gospels of Matthew, Mark, and Luke?)

Jesus Christ could have spoken that parable more than one time, without having to use the exact same words each time.

The danger in saying that the Gospels are not transcripts is that this opens the door for people to say: "Nah, Jesus did not say that. That is just what some man is claiming that he said. It is just hearsay". But it is not hearsay, because of the reasons given in the section above.

(See also the "inerrancy" section of 2 Timothy 3:16 below)

~

(Re: Church hierarchy)

The principles of John 14:26b and John 15:27b apply only to the original apostles of Jesus Christ (1 John 1:1-4; 2 Peter 1:16), not to any subsequent Church hierarchy.

~

(Re: John 14:26a)

See "26a" under John 14:16 above.

~

(Re: OSAS?)

See paragraph 1c of section 2 of Ephesians 1:13 below.

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*John 14:28c / *Jn. 14:28c -

Just as a human father is greater than his son in his authority, not in his humanity, for a human son is equal to his father in his humanity, so God the Father is greater than God the Son (John 14:28c, Hebrews 1:8) in His authority (1 Corinthians 15:28), not in His divinity. For God the Son, Jesus Christ, is equal to God the Father in His divinity (Philippians 2:6, John 1:1,14, John 10:30).

(See also John 1:1,14 above)

--

*John 15:2a / *Jn. 15:2a -

This refers to Christians, who are branches in the vine of Jesus Christ, wrongly employing their free will in such a way that they fail to produce good fruit, so that ultimately they are taken away from Jesus (John 15:2a), cut off from Him for their unrepentant laziness, to the ultimate loss of their salvation (Matthew 25:26,30).

(See also Matthew 25:26 above, and Ephesians 2:8 below)

Christians can also be ultimately cut off from Jesus Christ, cast away, and burned; they can ultimately lose their salvation, for not continuing to abide in Jesus (John 15:6), in the sense of committing apostasy (Hebrews 6:4-8; 1 Timothy 4:1; 2 Timothy 2:12b), or unrepentant sin (Hebrews 10:26-29, Luke 12:45-46; 1 Corinthians 9:27).

(See Hebrews 6:4 and Hebrews 10:26 below)

~

(Re: What does it mean to be a *fruitful Christian?)

Regarding John 15:2, being a fruitful Christian includes the meaning of performing good works (Titus 3:14, Colossians 1:10, Philippians 4:16-17).

(See also Mark 13:34 above)

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*John 15:5 / *Jn. 15:5 -

John 15:5a refers to the body of Jesus Christ, of which all Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles, are a part (1 Corinthians 12:13). The connection between them being part of the vine of the body of Christ, and them also being part of the good olive tree of Israel (Romans 11:17,24, Ephesians 2:12,19, Galatians 3:29), is that the salvation which all Christians have in Christ comes only through the New Covenant (Matthew 26:28; 1 Corinthians 11:25; 2 Corinthians 3:6, Hebrews 9:15), which God has made only with Israel (Jeremiah 31:31-34).

(See also the "Tribes" section of Romans 11:17 below)

~

(John 15:5b)

See "John 15:4-6" under Hebrews 3:6 below.

--

*John 15:6 / *Jn. 15:6 -

This shows that Christians who at one time were abiding in Jesus Christ as a branch in His vine (John 15:4-5) can wrongly employ their free will to stop abiding in Him, to the ultimate loss of their salvation (Hebrews 6:4-8; 2 Timothy 2:12b, Mark 8:35-38).

(See Hebrews 6:4 below)

--

*John 15:10 / *Jn. 15:10 -

This has a condition, an "if", attached to it, because it is possible for Christians to wrongly employ their free will to not obey Jesus Christ's commandments.

(See John 14:21 above)

--

*John 15:13 / *Jn. 15:13 -

See section 2 of 1 John 2:2 below.

~

(Re: Violence?)

John 15:13 does not support Christian violence against other people, even in the defense of one's family.

(See Matthew 5:39 above)

--

*John 15:14 / *Jn. 15:14 -

(Re: Is it necessary for ultimate salvation to die in God's *friendship?)

Yes, and that requires that a Christian actually obey God (John 15:14, James 2:21-24).

(See also Romans 2:6 below)

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*John 15:26-27 / *Jn. 15:26 / *Jn. 15:27 -

The principle of John 15:26-27a does not apply only to the apostles of Jesus Christ, but to anyone in the Church who witnesses/testifies of Jesus Christ and His Word the Holy Bible (e.g. Revelation 20:4, Revelation 12:11).

~

(Re: John 15:27b)

See section 4 of John 14:26 above.

-

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