*1 Corinthians 1:12-13 / *1 Cor. 1:12 -
(Re: *Denominations / *Calvinism / *TULIP)
Christians should not be identified or identify themselves as Calvinists or Arminians, or as any other man-made denomination (1 Corinthians 1:12-13; 1 Corinthians 3:4), but should simply be "Christians" (Acts 11:26b; 1 Peter 4:16).
(See 1 Corinthians 1:10 above)
Regarding the five points of Calvinism: TULIP, the first two points: Total depravity and Unconditional election, are correct because they are Biblical (e.g. Romans 3:10-18, Romans 9:11-24).
(See the "Election" and "Vessels of wrath" sections of Romans 9:11 above)
Regarding the third point of Calvinism: Limited atonement, it is true in the sense that Jesus Christ saves only elect individuals, His sheep (John 10:26-29). But it is not true in the sense that Jesus' suffering and death was sufficient to save everyone (1 John 2:2).
(See section 2 of John 10:11 above. And see 1 John 2:2 below)
Regarding the fourth point of Calvinism: Irresistible grace, it is true with regard to election to initial salvation (Acts 13:48b), but not with regard to ultimate salvation (e.g. Hebrews 10:26-29).
(See Hebrews 10:26 below. Also, see the "Initial salvation" section of Ephesians 2:8 below)
Regarding the fifth point of Calvinism: Perseverance of the saints, it is not true because saved people can fail to persevere (e.g. Matthew 25:26,30).
(See the "perseverance" section of Philippians 2:13 below. Also, see the "NOSAS" section of Hebrews 3:6 below)
--
*1 Corinthians 1:17 / *1 Cor. 1:17 -
Here the apostle Paul was not contradicting his own teaching of the necessity of water-immersion (burial) baptism for ultimate salvation (Romans 6:3-11, Colossians 2:12, Galatians 3:27). He simply meant that God did not want him to spend his apostolic time personally baptizing everyone who became a Christian through his preaching. For any other people in the Church could do that for him (cf. John 4:2). For any Christian can baptize new Christians. Also, Paul did not want to personally baptize a lot of people, to avoid as much as possible any false charge that he baptized in his own name (1 Corinthians 1:14-15). The Bible does not say how many people Paul baptized, but it does show that he made sure that people got baptized, whether by himself or someone else, right away after their coming into faith in Jesus Christ through his preaching (Acts 16:14-15, Acts 16:33, Acts 18:8, Acts 19:5).
(See also Mark 16:16 above)
--
*1 Corinthians 1:18 to 2:16 / *1 Cor. 1:18 -
Biblical Christianity appears foolish (1 Corinthians 1:18 to 2:16) to those whom God has not granted His miraculous gift of Christian faith (Ephesians 2:8, John 6:65; 1 Corinthians 3:5b, Romans 12:3b, Hebrews 12:2) and some measure of His Holy Spirit (1 Corinthians 2:11-16). Without God's miraculous intervention, our fallen, sinful, proud, human intellect remains the unwitting, blinded captive of Satan (2 Corinthians 4:4; 2 Timothy 2:25b-26, Job 41:34).
(See also Mark 13:9 above)
--
*1 Corinthians 1:20 / *1 Cor. 1:20 -
(This world)
See Romans 12:2 above.
--
*1 Corinthians 1:22 / *1 Cor. 1:22 -
It is possible for Jews to both require and seek miraculous signs, just as they did in the first century AD (John 2:18, Mark 8:11). But not all Jews of all times have to do this, for there are some Jews who have become Christians in modern times (e.g. "Jews for Jesus") without them having to see miraculous signs performed. 1 Corinthians 1:22 was simply referring to the general tendencies of Jewish and Gentile non-Christians in the time of the apostle Paul in the first century AD. Also, 1 Corinthians 1:22 does not mean that signs cannot be given to Gentiles. For when Paul preached to the Corinthians, who were Gentiles (1 Corinthians 12:2), he gave them signs (2 Corinthians 12:12). Also, the Corinthians themselves, after they became Christians, operated in the miraculous gifts of God's Holy Spirit (1 Corinthians 14:26-32; 1 Corinthians 12:8-10). Also, 1 Corinthians 1:22 does not mean that wisdom cannot be given to Jewish Christians. For both Jewish and Gentile Christians can receive wisdom (1 Corinthians 1:23-24,30, James 1:5).
--
*1 Corinthians 1:26-31 / *1 Cor. 1:26 -
(Re: Are there any examples of God using people with a *weakness, or the *least of these?)
1 Corinthians 1:26-31
Acts 4:13
1 Corinthians 15:9-10
2 Corinthians 12:9-10 (physical weakness)
(cf. John 15:5b)
--
*1 Corinthians 1:29,31 / *1 Cor. 1:29 / *1 Cor. 1:31 -
See Luke 17:10 above.
--
*1 Corinthians 2:4-5 / *1 Cor. 2:4 -
People can have human reason without having any desire to seek God (Romans 3:11). For in their merely-human reasoning, non-Christians see the things of God as foolishness (1 Corinthians 2:14), even the very Gospel of Jesus Christ (1 Corinthians 1:18). This is because non-Christians do not have God's Holy Spirit like Christians do (1 Corinthians 2:12-16, Isaiah 55:8-9).
~
(Re: Does such as thing as "spirit" even exist?)
Yes (e.g. 1 Thessalonians 5:23).
See Ecclesiastes 11:5 above.
--
*1 Corinthians 2:6-8 / *1 Cor. 2:6 -
(This world)
See Romans 12:2 above.
--
*1 Corinthians 2:13 / *1 Cor. 2:13 -
This does not mean that Holy-Spirit-inspired prophecy cannot refer to physical things, just as, for example, John 6:63b does not mean that Jesus Christ's Spiritual words cannot refer to physical things. For example, His words in Mark 10:33-34 were fulfilled physically.
(See also Luke 24:39 above)
--
*1 Corinthians 3:4-22 / *1 Cor. 3:4 -
It is sometimes thought that this includes a warning to Apollos not to pastor the Corinthian church in a wrong way, even though he was not at the Corinthian church at that particular time (1 Corinthians 16:12).
--
*1 Corinthians 3:5b / *1 Cor. 3:5b -
This means that everyone in the Corinthian church ("ye": 1 Corinthians 3:5a) believed in Jesus Christ because the Lord had given to everyone in the Corinthian church the Lord's miraculous gift of Christian faith (Romans 12:3b, Ephesians 2:8, John 6:65, Hebrews 12:2). 1 Corinthians 3:5b does not mean that everyone in the world has this faith, "for all men have not faith" (2 Thessalonians 3:2).
--
*1 Corinthians 3:9 / *1 Cor. 3:9 -
See 2 Corinthians 5:9 below.
--
*1 Corinthians 3:13 / *1 Cor. 3:13 -
(The day)
See the "Last day" section of John 6:39 above.
--
*1 Corinthians 3:15 / *1 Cor. 3:15 -
This refers only to the loss of reward for the work of spiritually building up a church congregation (1 Corinthians 3:8-17) if that work is done in a faulty manner by focusing on the merely-temporal "wood, hay, stubble" (1 Corinthians 3:12) of human, worldly wisdom (1 Corinthians 3:18-20) and the glorying in human leaders of the Church (1 Corinthians 3:4,21) instead of focusing on Jesus Christ Himself and the everlasting wisdom of His Word the Holy Bible (1 Corinthians 2:2 to 3:23; 1 Peter 1:23-25). 1 Corinthians 3:15 is not contradicting that if a Christian, whether a church builder or not, wrongly employs his free will to stop doing any good works, to become utterly lazy without repentance, then he will ultimately lose his salvation (Matthew 25:26,30, John 15:2a,6). For he will obtain ultimate salvation only if he patiently continues in good works and obedience to the end (Romans 2:6-8, Hebrews 5:9, James 2:24).
--
*1 Corinthians 4:5 / *1 Cor. 4:5 -
This refers to the judgment of the Church by Jesus Christ at His future, Second Coming (2 Corinthians 5:10; 2 Timothy 4:1), which will occur immediately after the future Tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24 (Matthew 24:29-31, Revelation 19:7 to 20:6). At the Second Coming, the rapture will gather the Church together (2 Thessalonians 2:1, Mark 13:27) into the clouds to meet Jesus in the air (1 Thessalonians 4:17) and to be judged by Him there (Psalms 50:3-5). When 1 Corinthians 4:5 says: "and then shall every man have praise of God", this could mean that everyone in the Church has done at least one good deed in his or her life as a Christian. But one good deed, or even many good deeds, is not enough to assure ultimate salvation.
(See Matthew 24:48 and Matthew 7:21 above. Also, see Ephesians 2:8 below)
--
*1 Corinthians 5:3 / *1 Cor. 5:3 -
(Absent in body, but present in spirit)
Note that the same idea is found in Colossians 2:5.
(See Revelation 3:3 below)
--
*1 Corinthians 5:5 / *1 Cor. 5:5 -
(Re: OSAS?)
The sinful Christian in 1 Corinthians 5 had not lost his salvation, for salvation is ultimately lost due to a sin only if a Christian refuses to repent from it (Hebrews 10:26-29; 1 Corinthians 9:27; 1 Corinthians 6:9-10) until he dies (1 John 5:16) or until Jesus Christ's future, Second Coming (Luke 12:45-46). After the sinful Christian in 1 Corinthians 5 was punished by being cast out of the congregation (1 Corinthians 5:13), he repented from his sin while he was still alive and so he was forgiven and restored to the congregation (2 Corinthians 2:6-10; 1 John 1:9).
Regarding "the destruction of the flesh" in 1 Corinthians 5:5, the original Greek word (olethros: G3639) translated as "destruction" can simply mean "punishment" (Strong's Greek Dictionary). So the "destruction" of the sinful Christian's flesh by Satan can simply mean that God, as a chastening for unrepentance (Revelation 3:19), would allow that person's flesh to temporarily suffer in some way at the hands of Satan (cf. Luke 13:16). It does not require that the person be killed by Satan (Job 2:6-7).
~
(Re: But Paul uses *olethros elsewhere to mean death)
Note that does not require that the apostle Paul means death every time that he uses "olethros". For "olethros" (G3639) can also simply mean "punishment" (Strong's Greek Dictionary).
~
(Re: So Satan has the right to punish sinners?)
Satan is sometimes allowed by God to punish sinners, whether Christians or non-Christians (1 Corinthians 5:5, Luke 13:16). Also, Satan is sometimes allowed by God to even kill (Hebrews 2:14b) even obedient Christians (Revelation 2:10, Revelation 13:7-10, Revelation 14:12-13, Revelation 20:4-6, Matthew 24:9-13) in Satan's own wrath against them (Revelation 12:17).
(See also Luke 10:19 above)
~
(Re: Full preterism?)
1 Corinthians 5:5 does not say or require that the day of the Lord Jesus Christ would occur in the first century AD.
(See 2 Thessalonians 2:2 below)
--
*1 Corinthians 5:9 / *1 Cor. 5:9 -
Note that this means that 1 Corinthians was not the first epistle that the apostle Paul wrote to the church in Corinth. But the epistle referred to in 1 Corinthians 5:9 did not survive to make it into the New Testament. Compare Revelation 1:11 below.
--
*1 Corinthians 5:10 / *1 Cor. 5:10 -
The original Greek word (harpax: G0727) translated as "extortioners" can mean just that: people who are "rapacious" (Strong's Greek Dictionary) in the sense of greedy to the point of taking things from others by force.
(Compare Luke 11:39 above)
--
*1 Corinthians 6:2 / *1 Cor. 6:2 -
This includes the Church's judging of the world during the future Millennium (Revelation 20:4-6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29), judging in the sense of ongoing rule like the judges (rulers) in the book of Judges in the Old Testament.
(See also paragraph 3 of Luke 17:26 above)
--
*1 Corinthians 6:3 / *1 Cor. 6:3 -
This can mean that the Church will judge Satan's fallen angels, who could be cast into the Bottomless Pit along with Satan at Jesus Christ's future, Second Coming (Revelation 20:2-3), before the future Millennium (Revelation 20:4-6). Later, after the Millennium and subsequent events (Revelation 20:7-9), Satan's fallen angels could be cast into the lake of fire, along with Satan himself, to suffer forever with Satan (Revelation 20:10, Matthew 25:41b).
In both instances the Church could judge Satan's fallen angels in the sense of agreeing that they are in unrepentant sin and so need to be cast away; just as even today a church congregation must be willing to agree that a human (even a Christian) in the congregation who is in unrepentant sin must be expelled from the congregation (1 Corinthians 5:11-13).
(See also section 4 of Ephesians 4:11 below. And see 1 Corinthians 5:5 above)
--
*1 Corinthians 6:9-10 / *1 Cor. 6:9 -
This and Galatians 5:19-21 show that unrepentant sin will keep people from obtaining ultimate salvation. Other Bible passages show that this includes Christians (Hebrews 10:26-29; 1 Corinthians 9:27, Luke 12:45-46). For Christians have been given by God the ability to repent from every sin that they commit (2 Corinthians 7:1, John 8:34-36, Romans 8:2-14, Romans 6:1-23, Galatians 5:16).
(See Revelation 3:19 below. Also, see the "repentance" section of Hebrews 10:26 below)
--
*1 Corinthians 6:11 / *1 Cor. 6:11 -
This applies only to Christians who actually repent from their sins and confess them to God (1 John 1:9). If Christians stop doing that and start committing an unrepentant sin, then they can never be sanctified from such a sin so long as they continue in it without repentance. Instead, they will ultimately lose their salvation if they refuse to repent from such a sin to the end (Hebrew 10:26-29; 1 Corinthians 9:27, Luke 12:45-46).
--
*1 Corinthians 6:16 / *1 Cor. 6:16 -
(Re: When does *one flesh begin? At marriage or only by pre-marital sex?)
Even pre-marital sex, and even just one time with even a prostitute (that is, even with someone whom you are not in a "loving" or "committed" relationship with), results in one flesh in one sense (1 Corinthians 6:16), where not God, but sin, has joined two people together physically. This sinful union of fornication can be broken, and forgiven, by repentance and confession to God (1 John 1:9; 1 Corinthians 6:9-11).
There is also another sense of one flesh, the marriage sense (Matthew 19:5), where it is God who joins two people together (Matthew 19:6) without any sin being involved (Hebrews 13:4a; 1 Corinthians 7:28). It is because of this God-joined union that divorce and remarriage is adultery under the New Covenant (Matthew 19:3-9).
(See Mark 10:11 above)
--
*1 Corinthians 7:2 / *1 Cor. 7:2 -
This does not mean that we have to get married, for other Bible verses show that celibacy is also a good thing.
(See the next entry)
--
*1 Corinthians 7:7-8 / *1 Cor. 7:7 -
(Re: *Celibacy)
If Christians can handle receiving the gift of celibacy instead of ever getting married (1 Corinthians 7:7-8, Matthew 19:12b), celibacy is a good thing (1 Corinthians 7:1). It is a great blessing because it allows Christians to devote themselves completely to serving Jesus Christ without distraction (1 Corinthians 7:32-35). Yet Jesus is still spiritually the husband of all Christians (2 Corinthians 11:2), whether they are celibate or married.
(See also Matthew 19:10 above)
--
*1 Corinthians 7:8-9 / *1 Cor. 7:8 -
This does not mean that a woman divorced from a valid husband can marry someone else while her husband is still alive, for her choices do not include that option (1 Corinthians 7:11, Mark 10:12, Luke 16:18b). While this could be difficult for her if she has a strong sex drive, it would be no different than if she were still married and her husband fell into a coma and stayed alive in that coma for years in a hospice. She cannot divorce him and marry someone else just so she can have sex. But there is always the chance that her husband could come out of his coma and be restored to good health, just as there is always the chance that a divorced, adulterer husband could repent, come back to her, remarry her, and be faithful.
(See also Mark 10:11 above)
~
(Re: Is it always about sex, instead of about children, loneliness, and support?)
Note that a divorced woman can keep her children. And she need never be lonely or without emotional support from other adults, but can have close emotional relationships with her parents, adult siblings, and friends. Also, if she has no children and her husband is still alive, she cannot marry someone else just to have children, just as if she were still married and her husband were infertile, she could not divorce him and marry someone else just to have children. Regarding financial support, she can retain it in the form of alimony. And if that is not available because her husband is too poor, then she can go to work; and appeal to her parents, siblings, and friends; and get government aid. And if all of these still leave her and her children living in poverty, she cannot marry someone else who is financially well-off just so that she and her children can escape poverty.
For just as... (See the first "escaping poverty" under Mark 10:11 above)
--
*1 Corinthians 7:11 / *1 Cor. 7:11 -
If a woman divorces a valid husband, she can be said to be "unmarried" (1 Corinthians 7:11) legally. But 1 Corinthians 7:11 does not say: "let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her non-husband", but to her "husband". For in God's eyes, her first, valid husband is still her husband. It is because of this that her only Christian choices are to remain unmarried legally or to remarry her first, valid husband legally (1 Corinthians 7:11). If she marries another man legally while her first, valid husband is still alive, then both she and that other man will be committing adultery against her first, valid husband (Mark 10:12, Luke 16:18b).
For an analogy of how it is possible for a woman to be divorced/unmarried legally, yet still be married to her husband in God's eyes, see Jeremiah 31:32 above.
(Also, see Mark 10:11 above)
--
*1 Corinthians 7:14 / *1 Cor. 7:14 -
This is not referring to sanctification in the salvational, faith-based, spiritual sense of Hebrews 13:12, Acts 26:18b, and Romans 15:16b. For then it would be saying that non-Christians are saved, which is impossible (John 3:36). So 1 Corinthians 7:14 must be referring to the lesser type of a merely-physical sanctification of the body (Hebrews 9:13), which a Christian spouse imparts to the body of a non-Christian spouse (when they become one flesh: Matthew 19:6), and to the bodies of their resulting children.
--
*1 Corinthians 7:15 / *1 Cor. 7:15 -
See "1 Corinthians 7:15" under Mark 10:11 above.
~
(Re: But has not God set us free from our sins?)
Yes, but just as God setting Christians free from bondage to sin (Romans 6:18) does not mean that He has set them free to commit sin (Romans 6:2), so His setting them free from the bondage of having to keep together a valid marriage to a non-Christian who is determined to get a divorce (1 Corinthians 7:15) does not mean that God has set a divorced Christian woman free to marry someone else while her first, valid husband is still alive. For that would be the sin of adultery (Luke 16:18b, Mark 10:12).
~
(Re: "Called us to peace": How can a Christian woman divorced by a non-Christian, valid husband ever have peace or hope if she cannot marry anyone else?)
She can have peace because in 1 Corinthians 7:15b the peace is between people (Hebrews 12:14), in this case between the Christian spouse and the non-Christian spouse. For the Christian spouse is not under bondage to keep fighting the non-Christian spouse over the non-Christian spouse's desire to get a divorce. Christians divorced by non-Christians (and even by Christians) can also have peace within themselves, for the peace of Christians does not come from them focusing on any carnal matters (Romans 8:6) in this fallen world of trials and tribulations, but from focusing on the spiritual peace which is miraculously given to Christians by Jesus Christ Himself (John 16:33, John 14:27; 2 Thessalonians 3:16, Philippians 4:7), as they do the right thing (Romans 2:10, Galatians 6:16) and remember that He never abandons obedient Christians (Matthew 28:20, Hebrews 13:5).
Also, Christians divorced by non-Christians (and even by Christians) can have hope, for the hope of Christians is not in the carnal matters of their lives in this world (1 Corinthians 15:19, Romans 5:3-5), but in Jesus Christ (1 Timothy 1:1b) and eternal life (Titus 1:2, Titus 3:7) in an immortal, physical body (Romans 8:23-25) which will be given to obedient Christians at Jesus' future, Second Coming (1 Peter 1:13; 1 John 3:2-3, Titus 2:13; 1 Corinthians 15:21-23,51-58).
--
*1 Corinthians 7:18-19 / *1 Cor. 7:18 -
This refers to physical circumcision, which under the New Covenant is not required of Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles (Galatians 5:6). There is also the spiritual circumcision of water-immersion (burial) baptism into Jesus Christ (Colossians 2:11-13, Philippians 3:3, Romans 2:29), which is required of Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles, if they are to attain ultimate salvation (Romans 6:3-8, Mark 16:16; 1 Peter 3:21, Acts 2:38, Galatians 3:27). Also, in 1 Corinthians 7:19 the "commandments of God" are not the letter of the commandments of the Old Covenant Mosaic law, for in 1 Corinthians 7:19 the "commandments of God" do not include physical circumcision, which was part of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Exodus 12:48).
(See also the "Circumcision" and "Law" sections of Ephesians 2:15 below. And see Mark 16:16 above)
--
*1 Corinthians 7:27-28 / *1 Cor. 7:27 -
This relates to literal-virgin Christians (1 Corinthians 7:25). It means that if they are engaged to be married, they should not break off the engagement (1 Corinthians 7:27a). But if an engagement has been broken off, they should not be seeking someone else to get engaged to (1 Corinthians 7:27b). But if they do end up getting engaged to someone else and getting married, it is not a sin (1 Corinthians 7:28a). It is just better to be celibate than to have the trouble of being married (1 Corinthians 7:28b), so long as a Christian can handle being celibate (1 Corinthians 7:32-38; 1 Corinthians 7:8-9).
--
*1 Corinthians 7:29 / *1 Cor. 7:29 -
Here "the time is short" should be understood in the same manner as: "Surely I come quickly" in Revelation 22:20, which refers to Jesus Christ's still-future Second Coming. That is, short/quickly in these verses should be understood from the viewpoint of God, not men (2 Peter 3:8-9, Psalms 90:4).
--
*1 Corinthians 7:32-35 / *1 Cor. 7:32 -
See 1 Corinthians 7:7 above.
--
*1 Corinthians 7:38 / *1 Cor. 7:38 -
(Giveth her in marriage)
In Greek, "ekgamizo" (G1547). In the context, this does not mean to give her "away" in marriage to someone else, but rather to marry her, as in 1 Corinthians 7:36b. The "ek" (G1537) part of "ekgamizo" does not have to always mean "away", but can be used in "denoting origin (the point whence action or motion proceeds)" (Strong's Greek Dictionary). That is, the act of marriage originates with the man deciding to actually marry his engaged virgin (as in 1 Corinthians 7:27-28). Similarly, Strong's says that "ek" is: "Often used in composition, with the same general import; often of completion". So "ekgamizo" can refer to the actual completion of a marriage, as opposed to only an engagement.
(See also 1 Corinthians 7:27 above)
--
*1 Corinthians 8:6 / *1 Cor. 8:6 -
This is not contradicting other Bible verses which show that the Lord Jesus Christ is also the one God (e.g. Titus 2:13, John 1:1,14, John 10:13). All we have to do is take out the comma between "God" and "the Father", like how there is no comma between "Lord" and "Jesus Christ", for there were no commas in the original Greek text:
1 Corinthians 8:6 But to us there is but one God the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.
Just as it would be mistaken to say that God the Father is not our Lord (Revelation 21:22, Luke 1:32, Jude 1:4), so it is mistaken to say that Jesus Christ is not our God (John 20:28).
(See John 1:1,14 above)
~
(Re: So do you have all things from the Most High going through the Most High? Two Most Highs?)
Yes, in that God the Father is the Most High, and so is God the Son (Hebrews 1:8, Isaiah 45:23, Philippians 2:10).
As an analogy, imagine two mountains which are the same elevation and are the most high in the universe.
~
(Re: But the Bible never refers to the Most High as "they")
But note that Psalms 57:2 in the original Hebrew does refer to God Most High in the plural form: "Elohiym Most High". And the original Hebrew of Psalms 78:56 similarly refers to "the Most High Elohiym".
Also, note that God could refer to Himself as "us" in Genesis 1:26 and Genesis 11:7.
~
(Re: If three is really one according to the Trinity theology, then what is the point of the Most High saying over and over that He is one)
The point of the three Persons of the Trinity being one God (cf. John 10:30) is that they are different than the pagan gods, who could disagree with each other and even war against each other. There is no rivalry in the Trinity. The Son is always submitted to the Father (John 12:49). And the Holy Spirit is the Spirit of the Father (Matthew 10:19-20 & Mark 13:11) and the Spirit of the Son (John 14:16-18, Romans 8:9).
(See John 1:1,14 above)
-
Next entry / Prior / Table of Contents
Dec 13, 2018
(Re: *Denominations / *Calvinism / *TULIP)
Christians should not be identified or identify themselves as Calvinists or Arminians, or as any other man-made denomination (1 Corinthians 1:12-13; 1 Corinthians 3:4), but should simply be "Christians" (Acts 11:26b; 1 Peter 4:16).
(See 1 Corinthians 1:10 above)
Regarding the five points of Calvinism: TULIP, the first two points: Total depravity and Unconditional election, are correct because they are Biblical (e.g. Romans 3:10-18, Romans 9:11-24).
(See the "Election" and "Vessels of wrath" sections of Romans 9:11 above)
Regarding the third point of Calvinism: Limited atonement, it is true in the sense that Jesus Christ saves only elect individuals, His sheep (John 10:26-29). But it is not true in the sense that Jesus' suffering and death was sufficient to save everyone (1 John 2:2).
(See section 2 of John 10:11 above. And see 1 John 2:2 below)
Regarding the fourth point of Calvinism: Irresistible grace, it is true with regard to election to initial salvation (Acts 13:48b), but not with regard to ultimate salvation (e.g. Hebrews 10:26-29).
(See Hebrews 10:26 below. Also, see the "Initial salvation" section of Ephesians 2:8 below)
Regarding the fifth point of Calvinism: Perseverance of the saints, it is not true because saved people can fail to persevere (e.g. Matthew 25:26,30).
(See the "perseverance" section of Philippians 2:13 below. Also, see the "NOSAS" section of Hebrews 3:6 below)
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*1 Corinthians 1:17 / *1 Cor. 1:17 -
Here the apostle Paul was not contradicting his own teaching of the necessity of water-immersion (burial) baptism for ultimate salvation (Romans 6:3-11, Colossians 2:12, Galatians 3:27). He simply meant that God did not want him to spend his apostolic time personally baptizing everyone who became a Christian through his preaching. For any other people in the Church could do that for him (cf. John 4:2). For any Christian can baptize new Christians. Also, Paul did not want to personally baptize a lot of people, to avoid as much as possible any false charge that he baptized in his own name (1 Corinthians 1:14-15). The Bible does not say how many people Paul baptized, but it does show that he made sure that people got baptized, whether by himself or someone else, right away after their coming into faith in Jesus Christ through his preaching (Acts 16:14-15, Acts 16:33, Acts 18:8, Acts 19:5).
(See also Mark 16:16 above)
--
*1 Corinthians 1:18 to 2:16 / *1 Cor. 1:18 -
Biblical Christianity appears foolish (1 Corinthians 1:18 to 2:16) to those whom God has not granted His miraculous gift of Christian faith (Ephesians 2:8, John 6:65; 1 Corinthians 3:5b, Romans 12:3b, Hebrews 12:2) and some measure of His Holy Spirit (1 Corinthians 2:11-16). Without God's miraculous intervention, our fallen, sinful, proud, human intellect remains the unwitting, blinded captive of Satan (2 Corinthians 4:4; 2 Timothy 2:25b-26, Job 41:34).
(See also Mark 13:9 above)
--
*1 Corinthians 1:20 / *1 Cor. 1:20 -
(This world)
See Romans 12:2 above.
--
*1 Corinthians 1:22 / *1 Cor. 1:22 -
It is possible for Jews to both require and seek miraculous signs, just as they did in the first century AD (John 2:18, Mark 8:11). But not all Jews of all times have to do this, for there are some Jews who have become Christians in modern times (e.g. "Jews for Jesus") without them having to see miraculous signs performed. 1 Corinthians 1:22 was simply referring to the general tendencies of Jewish and Gentile non-Christians in the time of the apostle Paul in the first century AD. Also, 1 Corinthians 1:22 does not mean that signs cannot be given to Gentiles. For when Paul preached to the Corinthians, who were Gentiles (1 Corinthians 12:2), he gave them signs (2 Corinthians 12:12). Also, the Corinthians themselves, after they became Christians, operated in the miraculous gifts of God's Holy Spirit (1 Corinthians 14:26-32; 1 Corinthians 12:8-10). Also, 1 Corinthians 1:22 does not mean that wisdom cannot be given to Jewish Christians. For both Jewish and Gentile Christians can receive wisdom (1 Corinthians 1:23-24,30, James 1:5).
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*1 Corinthians 1:26-31 / *1 Cor. 1:26 -
(Re: Are there any examples of God using people with a *weakness, or the *least of these?)
1 Corinthians 1:26-31
Acts 4:13
1 Corinthians 15:9-10
2 Corinthians 12:9-10 (physical weakness)
(cf. John 15:5b)
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*1 Corinthians 1:29,31 / *1 Cor. 1:29 / *1 Cor. 1:31 -
See Luke 17:10 above.
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*1 Corinthians 2:4-5 / *1 Cor. 2:4 -
People can have human reason without having any desire to seek God (Romans 3:11). For in their merely-human reasoning, non-Christians see the things of God as foolishness (1 Corinthians 2:14), even the very Gospel of Jesus Christ (1 Corinthians 1:18). This is because non-Christians do not have God's Holy Spirit like Christians do (1 Corinthians 2:12-16, Isaiah 55:8-9).
~
(Re: Does such as thing as "spirit" even exist?)
Yes (e.g. 1 Thessalonians 5:23).
See Ecclesiastes 11:5 above.
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*1 Corinthians 2:6-8 / *1 Cor. 2:6 -
(This world)
See Romans 12:2 above.
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*1 Corinthians 2:13 / *1 Cor. 2:13 -
This does not mean that Holy-Spirit-inspired prophecy cannot refer to physical things, just as, for example, John 6:63b does not mean that Jesus Christ's Spiritual words cannot refer to physical things. For example, His words in Mark 10:33-34 were fulfilled physically.
(See also Luke 24:39 above)
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*1 Corinthians 3:4-22 / *1 Cor. 3:4 -
It is sometimes thought that this includes a warning to Apollos not to pastor the Corinthian church in a wrong way, even though he was not at the Corinthian church at that particular time (1 Corinthians 16:12).
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*1 Corinthians 3:5b / *1 Cor. 3:5b -
This means that everyone in the Corinthian church ("ye": 1 Corinthians 3:5a) believed in Jesus Christ because the Lord had given to everyone in the Corinthian church the Lord's miraculous gift of Christian faith (Romans 12:3b, Ephesians 2:8, John 6:65, Hebrews 12:2). 1 Corinthians 3:5b does not mean that everyone in the world has this faith, "for all men have not faith" (2 Thessalonians 3:2).
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*1 Corinthians 3:9 / *1 Cor. 3:9 -
See 2 Corinthians 5:9 below.
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*1 Corinthians 3:13 / *1 Cor. 3:13 -
(The day)
See the "Last day" section of John 6:39 above.
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*1 Corinthians 3:15 / *1 Cor. 3:15 -
This refers only to the loss of reward for the work of spiritually building up a church congregation (1 Corinthians 3:8-17) if that work is done in a faulty manner by focusing on the merely-temporal "wood, hay, stubble" (1 Corinthians 3:12) of human, worldly wisdom (1 Corinthians 3:18-20) and the glorying in human leaders of the Church (1 Corinthians 3:4,21) instead of focusing on Jesus Christ Himself and the everlasting wisdom of His Word the Holy Bible (1 Corinthians 2:2 to 3:23; 1 Peter 1:23-25). 1 Corinthians 3:15 is not contradicting that if a Christian, whether a church builder or not, wrongly employs his free will to stop doing any good works, to become utterly lazy without repentance, then he will ultimately lose his salvation (Matthew 25:26,30, John 15:2a,6). For he will obtain ultimate salvation only if he patiently continues in good works and obedience to the end (Romans 2:6-8, Hebrews 5:9, James 2:24).
--
*1 Corinthians 4:5 / *1 Cor. 4:5 -
This refers to the judgment of the Church by Jesus Christ at His future, Second Coming (2 Corinthians 5:10; 2 Timothy 4:1), which will occur immediately after the future Tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24 (Matthew 24:29-31, Revelation 19:7 to 20:6). At the Second Coming, the rapture will gather the Church together (2 Thessalonians 2:1, Mark 13:27) into the clouds to meet Jesus in the air (1 Thessalonians 4:17) and to be judged by Him there (Psalms 50:3-5). When 1 Corinthians 4:5 says: "and then shall every man have praise of God", this could mean that everyone in the Church has done at least one good deed in his or her life as a Christian. But one good deed, or even many good deeds, is not enough to assure ultimate salvation.
(See Matthew 24:48 and Matthew 7:21 above. Also, see Ephesians 2:8 below)
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*1 Corinthians 5:3 / *1 Cor. 5:3 -
(Absent in body, but present in spirit)
Note that the same idea is found in Colossians 2:5.
(See Revelation 3:3 below)
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*1 Corinthians 5:5 / *1 Cor. 5:5 -
(Re: OSAS?)
The sinful Christian in 1 Corinthians 5 had not lost his salvation, for salvation is ultimately lost due to a sin only if a Christian refuses to repent from it (Hebrews 10:26-29; 1 Corinthians 9:27; 1 Corinthians 6:9-10) until he dies (1 John 5:16) or until Jesus Christ's future, Second Coming (Luke 12:45-46). After the sinful Christian in 1 Corinthians 5 was punished by being cast out of the congregation (1 Corinthians 5:13), he repented from his sin while he was still alive and so he was forgiven and restored to the congregation (2 Corinthians 2:6-10; 1 John 1:9).
Regarding "the destruction of the flesh" in 1 Corinthians 5:5, the original Greek word (olethros: G3639) translated as "destruction" can simply mean "punishment" (Strong's Greek Dictionary). So the "destruction" of the sinful Christian's flesh by Satan can simply mean that God, as a chastening for unrepentance (Revelation 3:19), would allow that person's flesh to temporarily suffer in some way at the hands of Satan (cf. Luke 13:16). It does not require that the person be killed by Satan (Job 2:6-7).
~
(Re: But Paul uses *olethros elsewhere to mean death)
Note that does not require that the apostle Paul means death every time that he uses "olethros". For "olethros" (G3639) can also simply mean "punishment" (Strong's Greek Dictionary).
~
(Re: So Satan has the right to punish sinners?)
Satan is sometimes allowed by God to punish sinners, whether Christians or non-Christians (1 Corinthians 5:5, Luke 13:16). Also, Satan is sometimes allowed by God to even kill (Hebrews 2:14b) even obedient Christians (Revelation 2:10, Revelation 13:7-10, Revelation 14:12-13, Revelation 20:4-6, Matthew 24:9-13) in Satan's own wrath against them (Revelation 12:17).
(See also Luke 10:19 above)
~
(Re: Full preterism?)
1 Corinthians 5:5 does not say or require that the day of the Lord Jesus Christ would occur in the first century AD.
(See 2 Thessalonians 2:2 below)
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*1 Corinthians 5:9 / *1 Cor. 5:9 -
Note that this means that 1 Corinthians was not the first epistle that the apostle Paul wrote to the church in Corinth. But the epistle referred to in 1 Corinthians 5:9 did not survive to make it into the New Testament. Compare Revelation 1:11 below.
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*1 Corinthians 5:10 / *1 Cor. 5:10 -
The original Greek word (harpax: G0727) translated as "extortioners" can mean just that: people who are "rapacious" (Strong's Greek Dictionary) in the sense of greedy to the point of taking things from others by force.
(Compare Luke 11:39 above)
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*1 Corinthians 6:2 / *1 Cor. 6:2 -
This includes the Church's judging of the world during the future Millennium (Revelation 20:4-6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29), judging in the sense of ongoing rule like the judges (rulers) in the book of Judges in the Old Testament.
(See also paragraph 3 of Luke 17:26 above)
--
*1 Corinthians 6:3 / *1 Cor. 6:3 -
This can mean that the Church will judge Satan's fallen angels, who could be cast into the Bottomless Pit along with Satan at Jesus Christ's future, Second Coming (Revelation 20:2-3), before the future Millennium (Revelation 20:4-6). Later, after the Millennium and subsequent events (Revelation 20:7-9), Satan's fallen angels could be cast into the lake of fire, along with Satan himself, to suffer forever with Satan (Revelation 20:10, Matthew 25:41b).
In both instances the Church could judge Satan's fallen angels in the sense of agreeing that they are in unrepentant sin and so need to be cast away; just as even today a church congregation must be willing to agree that a human (even a Christian) in the congregation who is in unrepentant sin must be expelled from the congregation (1 Corinthians 5:11-13).
(See also section 4 of Ephesians 4:11 below. And see 1 Corinthians 5:5 above)
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*1 Corinthians 6:9-10 / *1 Cor. 6:9 -
This and Galatians 5:19-21 show that unrepentant sin will keep people from obtaining ultimate salvation. Other Bible passages show that this includes Christians (Hebrews 10:26-29; 1 Corinthians 9:27, Luke 12:45-46). For Christians have been given by God the ability to repent from every sin that they commit (2 Corinthians 7:1, John 8:34-36, Romans 8:2-14, Romans 6:1-23, Galatians 5:16).
(See Revelation 3:19 below. Also, see the "repentance" section of Hebrews 10:26 below)
--
*1 Corinthians 6:11 / *1 Cor. 6:11 -
This applies only to Christians who actually repent from their sins and confess them to God (1 John 1:9). If Christians stop doing that and start committing an unrepentant sin, then they can never be sanctified from such a sin so long as they continue in it without repentance. Instead, they will ultimately lose their salvation if they refuse to repent from such a sin to the end (Hebrew 10:26-29; 1 Corinthians 9:27, Luke 12:45-46).
--
*1 Corinthians 6:16 / *1 Cor. 6:16 -
(Re: When does *one flesh begin? At marriage or only by pre-marital sex?)
Even pre-marital sex, and even just one time with even a prostitute (that is, even with someone whom you are not in a "loving" or "committed" relationship with), results in one flesh in one sense (1 Corinthians 6:16), where not God, but sin, has joined two people together physically. This sinful union of fornication can be broken, and forgiven, by repentance and confession to God (1 John 1:9; 1 Corinthians 6:9-11).
There is also another sense of one flesh, the marriage sense (Matthew 19:5), where it is God who joins two people together (Matthew 19:6) without any sin being involved (Hebrews 13:4a; 1 Corinthians 7:28). It is because of this God-joined union that divorce and remarriage is adultery under the New Covenant (Matthew 19:3-9).
(See Mark 10:11 above)
--
*1 Corinthians 7:2 / *1 Cor. 7:2 -
This does not mean that we have to get married, for other Bible verses show that celibacy is also a good thing.
(See the next entry)
--
*1 Corinthians 7:7-8 / *1 Cor. 7:7 -
(Re: *Celibacy)
If Christians can handle receiving the gift of celibacy instead of ever getting married (1 Corinthians 7:7-8, Matthew 19:12b), celibacy is a good thing (1 Corinthians 7:1). It is a great blessing because it allows Christians to devote themselves completely to serving Jesus Christ without distraction (1 Corinthians 7:32-35). Yet Jesus is still spiritually the husband of all Christians (2 Corinthians 11:2), whether they are celibate or married.
(See also Matthew 19:10 above)
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*1 Corinthians 7:8-9 / *1 Cor. 7:8 -
This does not mean that a woman divorced from a valid husband can marry someone else while her husband is still alive, for her choices do not include that option (1 Corinthians 7:11, Mark 10:12, Luke 16:18b). While this could be difficult for her if she has a strong sex drive, it would be no different than if she were still married and her husband fell into a coma and stayed alive in that coma for years in a hospice. She cannot divorce him and marry someone else just so she can have sex. But there is always the chance that her husband could come out of his coma and be restored to good health, just as there is always the chance that a divorced, adulterer husband could repent, come back to her, remarry her, and be faithful.
(See also Mark 10:11 above)
~
(Re: Is it always about sex, instead of about children, loneliness, and support?)
Note that a divorced woman can keep her children. And she need never be lonely or without emotional support from other adults, but can have close emotional relationships with her parents, adult siblings, and friends. Also, if she has no children and her husband is still alive, she cannot marry someone else just to have children, just as if she were still married and her husband were infertile, she could not divorce him and marry someone else just to have children. Regarding financial support, she can retain it in the form of alimony. And if that is not available because her husband is too poor, then she can go to work; and appeal to her parents, siblings, and friends; and get government aid. And if all of these still leave her and her children living in poverty, she cannot marry someone else who is financially well-off just so that she and her children can escape poverty.
For just as... (See the first "escaping poverty" under Mark 10:11 above)
--
*1 Corinthians 7:11 / *1 Cor. 7:11 -
If a woman divorces a valid husband, she can be said to be "unmarried" (1 Corinthians 7:11) legally. But 1 Corinthians 7:11 does not say: "let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her non-husband", but to her "husband". For in God's eyes, her first, valid husband is still her husband. It is because of this that her only Christian choices are to remain unmarried legally or to remarry her first, valid husband legally (1 Corinthians 7:11). If she marries another man legally while her first, valid husband is still alive, then both she and that other man will be committing adultery against her first, valid husband (Mark 10:12, Luke 16:18b).
For an analogy of how it is possible for a woman to be divorced/unmarried legally, yet still be married to her husband in God's eyes, see Jeremiah 31:32 above.
(Also, see Mark 10:11 above)
--
*1 Corinthians 7:14 / *1 Cor. 7:14 -
This is not referring to sanctification in the salvational, faith-based, spiritual sense of Hebrews 13:12, Acts 26:18b, and Romans 15:16b. For then it would be saying that non-Christians are saved, which is impossible (John 3:36). So 1 Corinthians 7:14 must be referring to the lesser type of a merely-physical sanctification of the body (Hebrews 9:13), which a Christian spouse imparts to the body of a non-Christian spouse (when they become one flesh: Matthew 19:6), and to the bodies of their resulting children.
--
*1 Corinthians 7:15 / *1 Cor. 7:15 -
See "1 Corinthians 7:15" under Mark 10:11 above.
~
(Re: But has not God set us free from our sins?)
Yes, but just as God setting Christians free from bondage to sin (Romans 6:18) does not mean that He has set them free to commit sin (Romans 6:2), so His setting them free from the bondage of having to keep together a valid marriage to a non-Christian who is determined to get a divorce (1 Corinthians 7:15) does not mean that God has set a divorced Christian woman free to marry someone else while her first, valid husband is still alive. For that would be the sin of adultery (Luke 16:18b, Mark 10:12).
~
(Re: "Called us to peace": How can a Christian woman divorced by a non-Christian, valid husband ever have peace or hope if she cannot marry anyone else?)
She can have peace because in 1 Corinthians 7:15b the peace is between people (Hebrews 12:14), in this case between the Christian spouse and the non-Christian spouse. For the Christian spouse is not under bondage to keep fighting the non-Christian spouse over the non-Christian spouse's desire to get a divorce. Christians divorced by non-Christians (and even by Christians) can also have peace within themselves, for the peace of Christians does not come from them focusing on any carnal matters (Romans 8:6) in this fallen world of trials and tribulations, but from focusing on the spiritual peace which is miraculously given to Christians by Jesus Christ Himself (John 16:33, John 14:27; 2 Thessalonians 3:16, Philippians 4:7), as they do the right thing (Romans 2:10, Galatians 6:16) and remember that He never abandons obedient Christians (Matthew 28:20, Hebrews 13:5).
Also, Christians divorced by non-Christians (and even by Christians) can have hope, for the hope of Christians is not in the carnal matters of their lives in this world (1 Corinthians 15:19, Romans 5:3-5), but in Jesus Christ (1 Timothy 1:1b) and eternal life (Titus 1:2, Titus 3:7) in an immortal, physical body (Romans 8:23-25) which will be given to obedient Christians at Jesus' future, Second Coming (1 Peter 1:13; 1 John 3:2-3, Titus 2:13; 1 Corinthians 15:21-23,51-58).
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*1 Corinthians 7:18-19 / *1 Cor. 7:18 -
This refers to physical circumcision, which under the New Covenant is not required of Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles (Galatians 5:6). There is also the spiritual circumcision of water-immersion (burial) baptism into Jesus Christ (Colossians 2:11-13, Philippians 3:3, Romans 2:29), which is required of Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles, if they are to attain ultimate salvation (Romans 6:3-8, Mark 16:16; 1 Peter 3:21, Acts 2:38, Galatians 3:27). Also, in 1 Corinthians 7:19 the "commandments of God" are not the letter of the commandments of the Old Covenant Mosaic law, for in 1 Corinthians 7:19 the "commandments of God" do not include physical circumcision, which was part of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Exodus 12:48).
(See also the "Circumcision" and "Law" sections of Ephesians 2:15 below. And see Mark 16:16 above)
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*1 Corinthians 7:27-28 / *1 Cor. 7:27 -
This relates to literal-virgin Christians (1 Corinthians 7:25). It means that if they are engaged to be married, they should not break off the engagement (1 Corinthians 7:27a). But if an engagement has been broken off, they should not be seeking someone else to get engaged to (1 Corinthians 7:27b). But if they do end up getting engaged to someone else and getting married, it is not a sin (1 Corinthians 7:28a). It is just better to be celibate than to have the trouble of being married (1 Corinthians 7:28b), so long as a Christian can handle being celibate (1 Corinthians 7:32-38; 1 Corinthians 7:8-9).
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*1 Corinthians 7:29 / *1 Cor. 7:29 -
Here "the time is short" should be understood in the same manner as: "Surely I come quickly" in Revelation 22:20, which refers to Jesus Christ's still-future Second Coming. That is, short/quickly in these verses should be understood from the viewpoint of God, not men (2 Peter 3:8-9, Psalms 90:4).
--
*1 Corinthians 7:32-35 / *1 Cor. 7:32 -
See 1 Corinthians 7:7 above.
--
*1 Corinthians 7:38 / *1 Cor. 7:38 -
(Giveth her in marriage)
In Greek, "ekgamizo" (G1547). In the context, this does not mean to give her "away" in marriage to someone else, but rather to marry her, as in 1 Corinthians 7:36b. The "ek" (G1537) part of "ekgamizo" does not have to always mean "away", but can be used in "denoting origin (the point whence action or motion proceeds)" (Strong's Greek Dictionary). That is, the act of marriage originates with the man deciding to actually marry his engaged virgin (as in 1 Corinthians 7:27-28). Similarly, Strong's says that "ek" is: "Often used in composition, with the same general import; often of completion". So "ekgamizo" can refer to the actual completion of a marriage, as opposed to only an engagement.
(See also 1 Corinthians 7:27 above)
--
*1 Corinthians 8:6 / *1 Cor. 8:6 -
This is not contradicting other Bible verses which show that the Lord Jesus Christ is also the one God (e.g. Titus 2:13, John 1:1,14, John 10:13). All we have to do is take out the comma between "God" and "the Father", like how there is no comma between "Lord" and "Jesus Christ", for there were no commas in the original Greek text:
1 Corinthians 8:6 But to us there is but one God the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.
Just as it would be mistaken to say that God the Father is not our Lord (Revelation 21:22, Luke 1:32, Jude 1:4), so it is mistaken to say that Jesus Christ is not our God (John 20:28).
(See John 1:1,14 above)
~
(Re: So do you have all things from the Most High going through the Most High? Two Most Highs?)
Yes, in that God the Father is the Most High, and so is God the Son (Hebrews 1:8, Isaiah 45:23, Philippians 2:10).
As an analogy, imagine two mountains which are the same elevation and are the most high in the universe.
~
(Re: But the Bible never refers to the Most High as "they")
But note that Psalms 57:2 in the original Hebrew does refer to God Most High in the plural form: "Elohiym Most High". And the original Hebrew of Psalms 78:56 similarly refers to "the Most High Elohiym".
Also, note that God could refer to Himself as "us" in Genesis 1:26 and Genesis 11:7.
~
(Re: If three is really one according to the Trinity theology, then what is the point of the Most High saying over and over that He is one)
The point of the three Persons of the Trinity being one God (cf. John 10:30) is that they are different than the pagan gods, who could disagree with each other and even war against each other. There is no rivalry in the Trinity. The Son is always submitted to the Father (John 12:49). And the Holy Spirit is the Spirit of the Father (Matthew 10:19-20 & Mark 13:11) and the Spirit of the Son (John 14:16-18, Romans 8:9).
(See John 1:1,14 above)
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