(Re: *Initial salvation / *Ultimate salvation)
The ideas of initial salvation and ultimate salvation do not have to be explicitly referred to in the Bible as "initial salvation" and "ultimate salvation" for them to be true and supported by the Bible, just as, for example, the ideas of the unity of God and the Trinity do not have to be explicitly referred to in the Bible as "the unity" and "the Trinity" for them to be true and supported by the Bible (John 10:30, John 1:1,14, Isaiah 45:5, Matthew 28:19, Acts 5:3-4).
For in the Bible, the difference between initial salvation and ultimate salvation is that...
(See section 1 of Ephesians 2:8 above)
Also, in the Bible, the difference between initial salvation and ultimate salvation is that initial salvation is the salvation which Christians have now (Ephesians 2:5), in their mortal bodies, while ultimate salvation is the salvation ready to be revealed in the last time (1 Peter 1:5), and which is always drawing nearer (Romans 13:11), that salvation which Christians are still hoping for (1 Thessalonians 5:8, Romans 8:23-25, Mark 10:30), and which Jesus Christ will bring to obedient Christians at His future, Second Coming (Hebrews 9:28, Hebrews 5:9), when He will resurrect (if dead) or change (if alive) their mortal physical bodies into immortal physical bodies just like the immortal physical body which Jesus obtained at His resurrection on the third day after His death (Luke 24:39,46; 1 Corinthians 15:3-4,21-23,51-53, Philippians 3:21, Romans 8:23-25, Philippians 3:11-14).
(See also section 2 of Ephesians 2:8 above)
~
(Re: Is this teaching *historical?)
Yes, for Protestantism has historically taught that salvation is by faith in Jesus Christ without works, which is true, not because it is historical but because it is based on the Bible (Ephesians 2:8-9, Titus 3:5, Romans 4:1-5). And Catholicism has historically taught that salvation is by both faith and works, which is also true, again not because it is historical but because it is also based on the Bible (Romans 2:6-8, James 2:24, Matthew 7:21). The only way that both sets of scriptures can be true is for the former to refer to initial salvation and the latter to ultimate salvation.
~
(Re: *Saved from hell)
What Christians are saved from, whether initially or ultimately, is eternal suffering in hell (Matthew 25:41,46). Initial salvation does save Christians from hell, initially. For an initially-saved Christian will end up in hell ultimately only if he wrongly employs his free will subsequent to his initial salvation in such a way that he ultimately loses his salvation (Hebrews 10:26-29, Hebrews 6:4-8, Matthew 25:26,30).
(See the "NOSAS" section of Hebrews 3:6 below)
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(Re: NOSAS: Does the idea that we are not once-saved-always-saved add to God's gift?) / (*Paramedic analogy)
No, for God does the initial saving of Christians by granting them His miraculous gift of faith in Jesus Christ (Ephesians 2:8). But His gift of this faith is like a paramedic causing the restarting of breathing of a non-breathing person by mouth-to-mouth resuscitation. Just as the resuscitated person must subsequently begin to breathe on his own if he is to remain alive, so a Christian must continue to believe in Jesus (Colossians 1:23) if he is to be ultimately saved (Hebrews 3:6,12,14). For just as it is possible for a resuscitated person to breathe on his own only for awhile, and then wrongly employ his free will to hang himself, so it is possible for a Christian to believe in Jesus only for awhile (Luke 8:13) and then wrongly employ his free will to depart from the Christian faith (1 Timothy 4:1), to the ultimate loss of his salvation (Hebrews 6:4-8).
(See Hebrews 6:4 below)
~
(Re: Do God's miraculous gifts of faith and repentance mean that there is no free will?) / (A *double-blind man analogy)
(Or see the shorter "blind man analogy" under Romans 9:16 above)
All non-Christians, whether elect or nonelect, are like people who do not even know that they are blind in both eyes. They can neither see any need to believe in Jesus Christ, nor see any need to repent from their sins. But when God miraculously grants elect people His gift of Christian faith (Ephesians 2:8, John 6:65; 1 Corinthians 3:5b, Romans 12:3b, Hebrews 12:2), and His miraculous gift of repentance (2 Timothy 2:25, Acts 11:18), it is like these people can suddenly see with both eyes.
Repentance and faith in Jesus Christ initially do not involve the will or any works, just as if a blind man who did not even know that he was blind were miraculously given sight by Jesus, both his eyes would miraculously see without his will or his works having to be involved. But miraculously giving a blind man his sight also does not take away his free will. So he can subsequently wrongly employ his free will to blind himself, such as by staring at the sun for too long.
In the same way, once repentance and faith in Jesus Christ are miraculously received by an elect person, he still has the same free will which he had before he got saved. And so he can ultimately lose his salvation if he, sometime subsequent to his initial repentance, wrongly employs his free will to return to doing something like committing a sin without repentance (2 Peter 2:20-22, Hebrews 10:26-29; 1 Corinthians 9:27, Luke 12:45-46), or becoming utterly lazy without repentance (Matthew 25:26,30, John 15:2a, Romans 2:6-8), or committing apostasy (Hebrews 6:4-8, John 15:6; 2 Timothy 2:12).
(See Hebrews 10:26 below)
--
*Ephesians 2:10 / *Eph. 2:10 -
This does not mean that Christians will automatically perform good works.
(See Philippians 2:13 below)
--
*Ephesians 2:11 / *Eph. 2:11 -
When Ephesians 2:11 says: "ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh", it is addressing Gentile Christians who in the past were unsaved, but then became saved and became spiritually-circumcised spiritual Jews by undergoing the spiritual circumcision of water-immersion (burial) baptism into Jesus Christ (Romans 2:29, Philippians 3:3, Colossians 2:11-13).
When Ephesians 2:11 says: "who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands", it means that the physically-circumcised Jews who mistakenly thought that physical circumcision was still required (Acts 15:1,5) were mistakenly considering Christian Gentiles who had become spiritually-circumcised spiritual Jews as still being uncircumcised, spiritual Gentiles.
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*Ephesians 2:12,19 / *Eph. 2:12 -
This is addressing Christians who are genetic Gentiles rather than genetic Jews (Romans 11:1).
Ephesians 2:12,19 means that Christian Gentiles are not strangers to Israel, but are fellowcitizens in Israel along with Jewish Christians. Read also what Ephesians 3:6 says.
(See also Galatians 3:29 above, and the "Tribes" section of Romans 11:17 above)
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*Ephesians 2:15-16 / *Eph. 2:15 -
This and Colossians 2:14-17 mean that on the Cross, Jesus Christ abolished the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law.
(See the "Law" section below)
~
(Re: So now we can sin all that we want, because the law is abolished?)
No, see Romans 6:15 above.
~
(Re: Did Jesus nail only our crimes/sins to the Cross, like how notices of criminals' crimes were nailed to their crosses?)
No, Jesus Christ nailed the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law itself to the Cross (Colossians 2:14-17, Romans 7:6). Also, when criminals were crucified, nailing notices of their crimes to their crosses did not abolish those laws which made their actions crimes, whereas...
(See the "Law" section below)
~
(Re: What was the *enmity?)
In Ephesians 2:15, "the enmity" which has been abolished included the "unclean"-Gentile concept of the Old Covenant (Ezra 9:11-14), which was removed under the New Covenant (Acts 10:28) on the Cross of Jesus Christ (Ephesians 2:11-19).
~
(Re: *Law)
(See what Galatians 4:21 to 5:8 says)
On Jesus Christ's Cross, for both Jews and Gentiles (John 11:51-52) of all times, the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law was completely and forever abolished (Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14-17; 2 Corinthians 3:6-18), disannulled (Hebrews 7:18), rendered obsolete (Hebrews 8:13, Galatians 3:2-25, Galatians 4:21 to 5:8), taken away and replaced (Hebrews 10:9) by the better hope (Hebrews 7:19), the better covenant (Hebrews 7:22, Hebrews 8:6-12), the second covenant (Hebrews 8:7, Hebrews 10:9), of Jesus' New Covenant law (Galatians 6:2, John 1:17, Matthew 26:28, Hebrews 12:24, Hebrews 9:15), so that the law was changed (Hebrews 7:12).
All Christians, whether Jews or Gentles, of all times, are delivered from the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law and should not keep it (Romans 7:6; 2 Corinthians 3:6-18, Galatians 2:11-21), or have any desire to keep it (Galatians 4:21 to 5:8, Galatians 3:2-25). Christians keep the spirit of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Romans 7:6) by loving others (Galatians 5:14, Romans 13:8-10), by doing to others as they would have others do to them (Matthew 7:12).
The New Covenant is a new law (Hebrews 7:12,18-19, Hebrews 10:1-23), consisting of Jesus Christ's New Covenant/New Testament commandments (John 14:15), such as those which He gave in the Sermon on the Mount (Matthew 5:19 to 7:29) and in the epistles of the apostle Paul (1 Corinthians 14:37). These commandments exceed in righteousness the abolished letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Matthew 5:20-48), so there is no reason for any Christian to ever want to go back under it (Galatians 3:2 to 5:26). It was just a temporary schoolmaster (Galatians 3:24-25), a temporary shadow (Colossians 2:16-17), which God set up because of sins long after He had set up the original promise of the Abrahamic Covenant, and long before He brought this promise to fulfillment in Jesus' New Covenant (Galatians 3:16-29, Matthew 26:28).
The letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law has been made obsolete by the New Covenant (Hebrews 8:13). For example, the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law required an Aaronic priesthood (Exodus 30:30), whereas the New Covenant replaced the Aaronic priesthood with the Melchisedechian priesthood (Hebrews 7:11-28). And the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law required animal sacrifices for sin (Leviticus 23:19), whereas the New Covenant replaced these with the one-time sacrifice of Jesus Christ Himself on the Cross (Hebrews 10).
The letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law is the Hagar to the New Covenant's Sarah (Galatians 4:21-25). So those people, whether Jews or Gentiles, who try to keep the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law are like Ishmael, Abraham's son by a bondmaid (Galatians 4:22), who was cast out (Galatians 4:30), while those people, whether Jews or Gentiles, who keep the New Covenant are like Isaac (Galatians 4:28), Abraham's son by a freewoman (Galatians 4:22,31), who became his heir (Galatians 4:30b).
The letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law, including the letter of its Ten Commandments, written and engraven in stones (2 Corinthians 3:7, Deuteronomy 4:13, Deuteronomy 27:8), was the ministration of death and condemnation (2 Corinthians 3:7,9). For example, see Leviticus 20:10, Exodus 31:14, and Numbers 15:32-36; and contrast these with the New Covenant's John 8:4-11 and Matthew 12:1-8.
The letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law has been completely and forever done away (2 Corinthians 3:11), abolished (2 Corinthians 3:13b). But it is still able to spiritually blind some people as with a veil from beholding Jesus Christ (2 Corinthians 3:14-16), while the New Covenant is the ministration of the Spirit and righteousness (2 Corinthians 3:6,8-9b), which remains (2 Corinthians 3:11b), and which permits Christians to remove the veil and to behold Jesus (2 Corinthians 3:16-18, Mark 15:38, Hebrews 7:18-19, Ephesians 2:15-18, Colossians 2:14-17).
But a mistaken spirit of Pharisaism can still sometimes deceive even some Christians into thinking that they must keep the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law to be saved from hell (Acts 15:1,5), or to become perfect (Galatians 3:2 to 5:26). This is a false, cursed gospel (Galatians 1:6-9). For if any Christians are keeping any part of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law thinking that they must do so in order to be saved from hell, or in order to become perfect, then Jesus Christ will profit them nothing. They have fallen from grace (Galatians 5:2-8).
(See also the "stricter" section of Matthew 5:19 above. And see Matthew 5:17 above)
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(Re: Did the apostle Paul teach even Jews not to keep the law?)
Yes, for the apostle Paul taught both Jews and Gentiles not to keep the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Romans 7:6, Galatians 2:11-21, Galatians 4:21 to 5:8, Galatians 3:2-25; 2 Corinthians 3:6-18, Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14-17).
(See "Christians keep" in the section above)
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(Re: Why would Jesus quote from Old Covenant scriptures if they are annulled?)
No scripture has been annulled entirely (2 Timothy 3:16). Instead, what was annulled on Jesus Christ's Cross was only the letter of the commandments of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14-17, Romans 7:6, Galatians 4:21 to 5:8, Galatians 3:2-25; 2 Corinthians 3:6-18).
(See paragraph 2 of the "Law" section above)
~
(Re: How can no scripture have been annulled, and yet the command to keep the sabbath, for example, has been annulled?)
The letter of the command to keep the sabbath (Exodus 31:15a) has been annulled in the same way that the letter of the command to execute anyone who does any work on the sabbath (Exodus 31:15b) has been annulled. Or do you believe that anyone who does any work on the sabbath should still be executed? If you do not, then what do you call what has happened to the letter of Exodus 31:15b?
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(Re: What is meant by the Old Covenant and the New Covenant?) / (*OC / *NC) / (*OT / *NT) / (*Covenants)
The Old Covenant was the covenant which God made with ancient Israel through Moses (Exodus 24:8, Deuteronomy 5:3) after Israel's Exodus from Egypt (Jeremiah 31:32) in the fifteenth century BC. The New Covenant is a different, current covenant, which God has made with Israel (Jeremiah 31:31) through Jesus Christ since His first coming in the first century AD (Hebrews 12:24, Matthew 26:28).
The Bible in English translations sometimes also calls the New Covenant the New Testament. For the original Greek word "diatheke" (G1242) can be translated into English as either "covenant" (Hebrews 8:8) or "testament" (Hebrews 9:15). So when Christians refer to the two main parts of the Bible as the Old Testament and the New Testament, what they are really referring to are the two parts of the Bible which focus (for the most part) on the Old Covenant and the New Covenant.
Regarding the New Covenant/New Testament being only for Israel (Jeremiah 31:31)...
(See the "Tribes" section of Romans 11:17 above. Also, see the "Law" section above here)
The Abrahamic Covenant can be considered as a precursor of the New Covenant, with the Old Covenant (Mosaic law) being an only-temporary covenant between the time of the Abrahamic Covenant and the New Covenant (Galatians 3:6-29).
The Noachian Covenant, which is still in effect (proven by there still being rainbows), is that God will not flood the earth again (Genesis 9:8-17). But He will eventually burn it (2 Peter 3:10-13), in the sense of its surface.
The Davidic Covenant (Psalms 89:34-37; 2 Samuel 7:16-29) is still in effect. For Jesus Christ at His future, Second Coming will sit on the throne of King David (Luke 1:32-33, Isaiah 9:7).
The Levitic Covenant is likewise still in effect (Jeremiah 33:20-22), insofar as there are, and always will be, Jewish Christians descended from Levi. But they will operate as priests, along with all other obedient Christians (1 Peter 2:9), whether Jews or Gentiles, under the Melchisedechian priesthood of the New Covenant. For the strictly-Levitical priesthood of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law was abolished along with the letter of that law on the Cross of Jesus Christ (Hebrews 7:11 to 8:13, Ephesians 2:15-16).
~
(Re: Did not Jesus come to teach the Torah? Is not He the messenger of the covenant?)
Jesus Christ did not come to teach the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (John 1:17).
Jesus Christ is the messenger and mediator of the New Covenant (Hebrews 12:24, Hebrews 7:22, Hebrews 8:6-9), which is not according to the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Jeremiah 31:31-32).
(See the "stricter" section of Matthew 5:19 above)
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(Re: I reject your reference to a so-called *Mosaic law)
Why do you say "so-called", in light of verses such as John 1:17, John 7:19, John 7:23, Luke 24:44, Luke 2:22, Acts 13:39, Matthew 19:7-9, Hebrews 10:28, 1 Corinthians 9:9, Acts 28:23, Acts 15:5, and John 8:5?
(See also the "OCML" section of Galatians 4:21 above)
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(Re: How can the spirit of the Old Covenant Mosaic law be kept without placing oneself under its *letter?)
For example, Christians keep the spirit of: "Thou shalt not commit adultery" (Exodus 20:14) by not committing adultery out of love for the spouses whom they would otherwise wrong (Romans 13:8-10), not out of a mistaken desire to place themselves under the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Galatians 4:21 to 5:8, Galatians 3:2-25; 2 Corinthians 3:6-18). For Christians "should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter" (Romans 7:6). And the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law has been abolished (Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14-17; 2 Corinthians 3:6-18), disannulled (Hebrews 7:18-19, Hebrews 10:9b).
An analogy would be a street which once had, by law, a 25 mph (40 kph) speed-limit sign on it. But then the law was changed, the sign was removed and replaced by a new sign which simply said: "Drive Carefully". One day, a man was driving with his wife down the street with the new sign, and his wife looked over at the speedometer and said: "Why are you only going 25? Why are you still obeying that old sign which was removed?". The man answered: "I'm not obeying the old sign. I'm driving carefully".
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(Re: But if you eliminate the Ten Commandments and rely solely on love thy neighbor, this means that we can go have sex with all of the women that we want. I can have sex with your wife, sister, and daughter, and still not be charged with a sin, because I am loving everyone)
No, because you would not be loving me or your wife, but wronging both of us by committing adultery against both of us. Love does no wrong to others (Romans 13:10).
Also, adultery is still explicitly listed as a sin, and is even the first on a list of sins under the New Covenant/New Testament (Galatians 5:19-21). So there is no need to go back to the Old Covenant's Ten Commandments' prohibition against adultery.
Also, if you are unmarried, and my sister and daughter were as well, then with them you would still be committing the sin of fornication (unmarried sex), which is second on a New Covenant list of sins (Galatians 5:19-21).
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(Re: Is the idea of each of the *10 commandments *repeated in the New Testament/New Covenant?)
Yes, in that the New Covenant repeats the ideas of the first and second of the Ten Commandments of the Old Covenant (Deuteronomy 5:7-10) in such verses as 1 Corinthians 8:4, Mark 12:29-30, and 1 John 5:21. The idea of the third of the Ten Commandments (Deuteronomy 5:11) is amplified in the New Covenant to include our actions and not just our words (Titus 1:16). That is, if we profess the name of the LORD/YHWH, we do so in vain if we do not obey Jesus Christ and God the Father (Matthew 7:21, Hebrews 5:9, Luke 6:46).
The idea of the fourth of the Ten Commandments of the Old Covenant (Deuteronomy 5:12-15) is amplified in the New Covenant to include every day of a Christian's life in Jesus Christ (Matthew 11:28-30, Hebrews 4:3,10, Luke 9:23). The idea of the fifth of the Ten Commandments (Deuteronomy 5:16) is repeated in the New Covenant (Ephesians 6:1-3) and amplified to include honoring every person who is older than us (1 Timothy 5:1-2). The idea of the sixth of the Ten Commandments (Deuteronomy 5:17) is repeated in the New Covenant (Revelation 21:8, Galatians 5:21) and amplified to include hatred by itself (1 John 3:15), or unjustified anger by itself, or name-calling by itself (Matthew 5:21-22).
The idea of the seventh of the Ten Commandments of the Old Covenant (Deuteronomy 5:18) is repeated in the New Covenant (Galatians 5:19-21) and amplified to include lust by itself (Matthew 5:28). The idea of the eighth of the Ten Commandments (Deuteronomy 5:19) is repeated in the New Covenant (1 Corinthians 6:10). The idea of the ninth of the Ten Commandments (Deuteronomy 5:20) is repeated in the New Covenant (Matthew 15:19, cf. Revelation 22:15c). The idea of the tenth of the Ten Commandments (Deuteronomy 5:21) is repeated in the New Covenant (Luke 12:15, Ephesians 5:5; 1 Corinthians 6:10).
So there is no need to go back to the Ten Commandments of the Old Covenant. The New Covenant has all of them covered. Indeed, the New Covenant forbids all manner of sins for those who want to be ultimately saved from hell (1 Corinthians 6:9-10, Galatians 5:19-21).
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(Re: Would not a change of the law rob the Jews of their identity?)
No, for Jewish Christians retain their genetic identity as Jews (Acts 22:3, Romans 11:1). And their former identification with the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law has simply been replaced by their identification with the better, New Covenant law of Jesus Christ (John 14:15, Hebrews 7:22, Jeremiah 31:31-34), who is Himself a Jew (John 4:9,22, Luke 2:21).
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Dec 18, 2018
The ideas of initial salvation and ultimate salvation do not have to be explicitly referred to in the Bible as "initial salvation" and "ultimate salvation" for them to be true and supported by the Bible, just as, for example, the ideas of the unity of God and the Trinity do not have to be explicitly referred to in the Bible as "the unity" and "the Trinity" for them to be true and supported by the Bible (John 10:30, John 1:1,14, Isaiah 45:5, Matthew 28:19, Acts 5:3-4).
For in the Bible, the difference between initial salvation and ultimate salvation is that...
(See section 1 of Ephesians 2:8 above)
Also, in the Bible, the difference between initial salvation and ultimate salvation is that initial salvation is the salvation which Christians have now (Ephesians 2:5), in their mortal bodies, while ultimate salvation is the salvation ready to be revealed in the last time (1 Peter 1:5), and which is always drawing nearer (Romans 13:11), that salvation which Christians are still hoping for (1 Thessalonians 5:8, Romans 8:23-25, Mark 10:30), and which Jesus Christ will bring to obedient Christians at His future, Second Coming (Hebrews 9:28, Hebrews 5:9), when He will resurrect (if dead) or change (if alive) their mortal physical bodies into immortal physical bodies just like the immortal physical body which Jesus obtained at His resurrection on the third day after His death (Luke 24:39,46; 1 Corinthians 15:3-4,21-23,51-53, Philippians 3:21, Romans 8:23-25, Philippians 3:11-14).
(See also section 2 of Ephesians 2:8 above)
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(Re: Is this teaching *historical?)
Yes, for Protestantism has historically taught that salvation is by faith in Jesus Christ without works, which is true, not because it is historical but because it is based on the Bible (Ephesians 2:8-9, Titus 3:5, Romans 4:1-5). And Catholicism has historically taught that salvation is by both faith and works, which is also true, again not because it is historical but because it is also based on the Bible (Romans 2:6-8, James 2:24, Matthew 7:21). The only way that both sets of scriptures can be true is for the former to refer to initial salvation and the latter to ultimate salvation.
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(Re: *Saved from hell)
What Christians are saved from, whether initially or ultimately, is eternal suffering in hell (Matthew 25:41,46). Initial salvation does save Christians from hell, initially. For an initially-saved Christian will end up in hell ultimately only if he wrongly employs his free will subsequent to his initial salvation in such a way that he ultimately loses his salvation (Hebrews 10:26-29, Hebrews 6:4-8, Matthew 25:26,30).
(See the "NOSAS" section of Hebrews 3:6 below)
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(Re: NOSAS: Does the idea that we are not once-saved-always-saved add to God's gift?) / (*Paramedic analogy)
No, for God does the initial saving of Christians by granting them His miraculous gift of faith in Jesus Christ (Ephesians 2:8). But His gift of this faith is like a paramedic causing the restarting of breathing of a non-breathing person by mouth-to-mouth resuscitation. Just as the resuscitated person must subsequently begin to breathe on his own if he is to remain alive, so a Christian must continue to believe in Jesus (Colossians 1:23) if he is to be ultimately saved (Hebrews 3:6,12,14). For just as it is possible for a resuscitated person to breathe on his own only for awhile, and then wrongly employ his free will to hang himself, so it is possible for a Christian to believe in Jesus only for awhile (Luke 8:13) and then wrongly employ his free will to depart from the Christian faith (1 Timothy 4:1), to the ultimate loss of his salvation (Hebrews 6:4-8).
(See Hebrews 6:4 below)
~
(Re: Do God's miraculous gifts of faith and repentance mean that there is no free will?) / (A *double-blind man analogy)
(Or see the shorter "blind man analogy" under Romans 9:16 above)
All non-Christians, whether elect or nonelect, are like people who do not even know that they are blind in both eyes. They can neither see any need to believe in Jesus Christ, nor see any need to repent from their sins. But when God miraculously grants elect people His gift of Christian faith (Ephesians 2:8, John 6:65; 1 Corinthians 3:5b, Romans 12:3b, Hebrews 12:2), and His miraculous gift of repentance (2 Timothy 2:25, Acts 11:18), it is like these people can suddenly see with both eyes.
Repentance and faith in Jesus Christ initially do not involve the will or any works, just as if a blind man who did not even know that he was blind were miraculously given sight by Jesus, both his eyes would miraculously see without his will or his works having to be involved. But miraculously giving a blind man his sight also does not take away his free will. So he can subsequently wrongly employ his free will to blind himself, such as by staring at the sun for too long.
In the same way, once repentance and faith in Jesus Christ are miraculously received by an elect person, he still has the same free will which he had before he got saved. And so he can ultimately lose his salvation if he, sometime subsequent to his initial repentance, wrongly employs his free will to return to doing something like committing a sin without repentance (2 Peter 2:20-22, Hebrews 10:26-29; 1 Corinthians 9:27, Luke 12:45-46), or becoming utterly lazy without repentance (Matthew 25:26,30, John 15:2a, Romans 2:6-8), or committing apostasy (Hebrews 6:4-8, John 15:6; 2 Timothy 2:12).
(See Hebrews 10:26 below)
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*Ephesians 2:10 / *Eph. 2:10 -
This does not mean that Christians will automatically perform good works.
(See Philippians 2:13 below)
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*Ephesians 2:11 / *Eph. 2:11 -
When Ephesians 2:11 says: "ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh", it is addressing Gentile Christians who in the past were unsaved, but then became saved and became spiritually-circumcised spiritual Jews by undergoing the spiritual circumcision of water-immersion (burial) baptism into Jesus Christ (Romans 2:29, Philippians 3:3, Colossians 2:11-13).
When Ephesians 2:11 says: "who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands", it means that the physically-circumcised Jews who mistakenly thought that physical circumcision was still required (Acts 15:1,5) were mistakenly considering Christian Gentiles who had become spiritually-circumcised spiritual Jews as still being uncircumcised, spiritual Gentiles.
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*Ephesians 2:12,19 / *Eph. 2:12 -
This is addressing Christians who are genetic Gentiles rather than genetic Jews (Romans 11:1).
Ephesians 2:12,19 means that Christian Gentiles are not strangers to Israel, but are fellowcitizens in Israel along with Jewish Christians. Read also what Ephesians 3:6 says.
(See also Galatians 3:29 above, and the "Tribes" section of Romans 11:17 above)
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*Ephesians 2:15-16 / *Eph. 2:15 -
This and Colossians 2:14-17 mean that on the Cross, Jesus Christ abolished the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law.
(See the "Law" section below)
~
(Re: So now we can sin all that we want, because the law is abolished?)
No, see Romans 6:15 above.
~
(Re: Did Jesus nail only our crimes/sins to the Cross, like how notices of criminals' crimes were nailed to their crosses?)
No, Jesus Christ nailed the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law itself to the Cross (Colossians 2:14-17, Romans 7:6). Also, when criminals were crucified, nailing notices of their crimes to their crosses did not abolish those laws which made their actions crimes, whereas...
(See the "Law" section below)
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(Re: What was the *enmity?)
In Ephesians 2:15, "the enmity" which has been abolished included the "unclean"-Gentile concept of the Old Covenant (Ezra 9:11-14), which was removed under the New Covenant (Acts 10:28) on the Cross of Jesus Christ (Ephesians 2:11-19).
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(Re: *Law)
(See what Galatians 4:21 to 5:8 says)
On Jesus Christ's Cross, for both Jews and Gentiles (John 11:51-52) of all times, the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law was completely and forever abolished (Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14-17; 2 Corinthians 3:6-18), disannulled (Hebrews 7:18), rendered obsolete (Hebrews 8:13, Galatians 3:2-25, Galatians 4:21 to 5:8), taken away and replaced (Hebrews 10:9) by the better hope (Hebrews 7:19), the better covenant (Hebrews 7:22, Hebrews 8:6-12), the second covenant (Hebrews 8:7, Hebrews 10:9), of Jesus' New Covenant law (Galatians 6:2, John 1:17, Matthew 26:28, Hebrews 12:24, Hebrews 9:15), so that the law was changed (Hebrews 7:12).
All Christians, whether Jews or Gentles, of all times, are delivered from the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law and should not keep it (Romans 7:6; 2 Corinthians 3:6-18, Galatians 2:11-21), or have any desire to keep it (Galatians 4:21 to 5:8, Galatians 3:2-25). Christians keep the spirit of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Romans 7:6) by loving others (Galatians 5:14, Romans 13:8-10), by doing to others as they would have others do to them (Matthew 7:12).
The New Covenant is a new law (Hebrews 7:12,18-19, Hebrews 10:1-23), consisting of Jesus Christ's New Covenant/New Testament commandments (John 14:15), such as those which He gave in the Sermon on the Mount (Matthew 5:19 to 7:29) and in the epistles of the apostle Paul (1 Corinthians 14:37). These commandments exceed in righteousness the abolished letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Matthew 5:20-48), so there is no reason for any Christian to ever want to go back under it (Galatians 3:2 to 5:26). It was just a temporary schoolmaster (Galatians 3:24-25), a temporary shadow (Colossians 2:16-17), which God set up because of sins long after He had set up the original promise of the Abrahamic Covenant, and long before He brought this promise to fulfillment in Jesus' New Covenant (Galatians 3:16-29, Matthew 26:28).
The letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law has been made obsolete by the New Covenant (Hebrews 8:13). For example, the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law required an Aaronic priesthood (Exodus 30:30), whereas the New Covenant replaced the Aaronic priesthood with the Melchisedechian priesthood (Hebrews 7:11-28). And the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law required animal sacrifices for sin (Leviticus 23:19), whereas the New Covenant replaced these with the one-time sacrifice of Jesus Christ Himself on the Cross (Hebrews 10).
The letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law is the Hagar to the New Covenant's Sarah (Galatians 4:21-25). So those people, whether Jews or Gentiles, who try to keep the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law are like Ishmael, Abraham's son by a bondmaid (Galatians 4:22), who was cast out (Galatians 4:30), while those people, whether Jews or Gentiles, who keep the New Covenant are like Isaac (Galatians 4:28), Abraham's son by a freewoman (Galatians 4:22,31), who became his heir (Galatians 4:30b).
The letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law, including the letter of its Ten Commandments, written and engraven in stones (2 Corinthians 3:7, Deuteronomy 4:13, Deuteronomy 27:8), was the ministration of death and condemnation (2 Corinthians 3:7,9). For example, see Leviticus 20:10, Exodus 31:14, and Numbers 15:32-36; and contrast these with the New Covenant's John 8:4-11 and Matthew 12:1-8.
The letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law has been completely and forever done away (2 Corinthians 3:11), abolished (2 Corinthians 3:13b). But it is still able to spiritually blind some people as with a veil from beholding Jesus Christ (2 Corinthians 3:14-16), while the New Covenant is the ministration of the Spirit and righteousness (2 Corinthians 3:6,8-9b), which remains (2 Corinthians 3:11b), and which permits Christians to remove the veil and to behold Jesus (2 Corinthians 3:16-18, Mark 15:38, Hebrews 7:18-19, Ephesians 2:15-18, Colossians 2:14-17).
But a mistaken spirit of Pharisaism can still sometimes deceive even some Christians into thinking that they must keep the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law to be saved from hell (Acts 15:1,5), or to become perfect (Galatians 3:2 to 5:26). This is a false, cursed gospel (Galatians 1:6-9). For if any Christians are keeping any part of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law thinking that they must do so in order to be saved from hell, or in order to become perfect, then Jesus Christ will profit them nothing. They have fallen from grace (Galatians 5:2-8).
(See also the "stricter" section of Matthew 5:19 above. And see Matthew 5:17 above)
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(Re: Did the apostle Paul teach even Jews not to keep the law?)
Yes, for the apostle Paul taught both Jews and Gentiles not to keep the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Romans 7:6, Galatians 2:11-21, Galatians 4:21 to 5:8, Galatians 3:2-25; 2 Corinthians 3:6-18, Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14-17).
(See "Christians keep" in the section above)
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(Re: Why would Jesus quote from Old Covenant scriptures if they are annulled?)
No scripture has been annulled entirely (2 Timothy 3:16). Instead, what was annulled on Jesus Christ's Cross was only the letter of the commandments of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14-17, Romans 7:6, Galatians 4:21 to 5:8, Galatians 3:2-25; 2 Corinthians 3:6-18).
(See paragraph 2 of the "Law" section above)
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(Re: How can no scripture have been annulled, and yet the command to keep the sabbath, for example, has been annulled?)
The letter of the command to keep the sabbath (Exodus 31:15a) has been annulled in the same way that the letter of the command to execute anyone who does any work on the sabbath (Exodus 31:15b) has been annulled. Or do you believe that anyone who does any work on the sabbath should still be executed? If you do not, then what do you call what has happened to the letter of Exodus 31:15b?
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(Re: What is meant by the Old Covenant and the New Covenant?) / (*OC / *NC) / (*OT / *NT) / (*Covenants)
The Old Covenant was the covenant which God made with ancient Israel through Moses (Exodus 24:8, Deuteronomy 5:3) after Israel's Exodus from Egypt (Jeremiah 31:32) in the fifteenth century BC. The New Covenant is a different, current covenant, which God has made with Israel (Jeremiah 31:31) through Jesus Christ since His first coming in the first century AD (Hebrews 12:24, Matthew 26:28).
The Bible in English translations sometimes also calls the New Covenant the New Testament. For the original Greek word "diatheke" (G1242) can be translated into English as either "covenant" (Hebrews 8:8) or "testament" (Hebrews 9:15). So when Christians refer to the two main parts of the Bible as the Old Testament and the New Testament, what they are really referring to are the two parts of the Bible which focus (for the most part) on the Old Covenant and the New Covenant.
Regarding the New Covenant/New Testament being only for Israel (Jeremiah 31:31)...
(See the "Tribes" section of Romans 11:17 above. Also, see the "Law" section above here)
The Abrahamic Covenant can be considered as a precursor of the New Covenant, with the Old Covenant (Mosaic law) being an only-temporary covenant between the time of the Abrahamic Covenant and the New Covenant (Galatians 3:6-29).
The Noachian Covenant, which is still in effect (proven by there still being rainbows), is that God will not flood the earth again (Genesis 9:8-17). But He will eventually burn it (2 Peter 3:10-13), in the sense of its surface.
The Davidic Covenant (Psalms 89:34-37; 2 Samuel 7:16-29) is still in effect. For Jesus Christ at His future, Second Coming will sit on the throne of King David (Luke 1:32-33, Isaiah 9:7).
The Levitic Covenant is likewise still in effect (Jeremiah 33:20-22), insofar as there are, and always will be, Jewish Christians descended from Levi. But they will operate as priests, along with all other obedient Christians (1 Peter 2:9), whether Jews or Gentiles, under the Melchisedechian priesthood of the New Covenant. For the strictly-Levitical priesthood of the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law was abolished along with the letter of that law on the Cross of Jesus Christ (Hebrews 7:11 to 8:13, Ephesians 2:15-16).
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(Re: Did not Jesus come to teach the Torah? Is not He the messenger of the covenant?)
Jesus Christ did not come to teach the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (John 1:17).
Jesus Christ is the messenger and mediator of the New Covenant (Hebrews 12:24, Hebrews 7:22, Hebrews 8:6-9), which is not according to the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Jeremiah 31:31-32).
(See the "stricter" section of Matthew 5:19 above)
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(Re: I reject your reference to a so-called *Mosaic law)
Why do you say "so-called", in light of verses such as John 1:17, John 7:19, John 7:23, Luke 24:44, Luke 2:22, Acts 13:39, Matthew 19:7-9, Hebrews 10:28, 1 Corinthians 9:9, Acts 28:23, Acts 15:5, and John 8:5?
(See also the "OCML" section of Galatians 4:21 above)
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(Re: How can the spirit of the Old Covenant Mosaic law be kept without placing oneself under its *letter?)
For example, Christians keep the spirit of: "Thou shalt not commit adultery" (Exodus 20:14) by not committing adultery out of love for the spouses whom they would otherwise wrong (Romans 13:8-10), not out of a mistaken desire to place themselves under the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Galatians 4:21 to 5:8, Galatians 3:2-25; 2 Corinthians 3:6-18). For Christians "should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter" (Romans 7:6). And the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law has been abolished (Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14-17; 2 Corinthians 3:6-18), disannulled (Hebrews 7:18-19, Hebrews 10:9b).
An analogy would be a street which once had, by law, a 25 mph (40 kph) speed-limit sign on it. But then the law was changed, the sign was removed and replaced by a new sign which simply said: "Drive Carefully". One day, a man was driving with his wife down the street with the new sign, and his wife looked over at the speedometer and said: "Why are you only going 25? Why are you still obeying that old sign which was removed?". The man answered: "I'm not obeying the old sign. I'm driving carefully".
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(Re: But if you eliminate the Ten Commandments and rely solely on love thy neighbor, this means that we can go have sex with all of the women that we want. I can have sex with your wife, sister, and daughter, and still not be charged with a sin, because I am loving everyone)
No, because you would not be loving me or your wife, but wronging both of us by committing adultery against both of us. Love does no wrong to others (Romans 13:10).
Also, adultery is still explicitly listed as a sin, and is even the first on a list of sins under the New Covenant/New Testament (Galatians 5:19-21). So there is no need to go back to the Old Covenant's Ten Commandments' prohibition against adultery.
Also, if you are unmarried, and my sister and daughter were as well, then with them you would still be committing the sin of fornication (unmarried sex), which is second on a New Covenant list of sins (Galatians 5:19-21).
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(Re: Is the idea of each of the *10 commandments *repeated in the New Testament/New Covenant?)
Yes, in that the New Covenant repeats the ideas of the first and second of the Ten Commandments of the Old Covenant (Deuteronomy 5:7-10) in such verses as 1 Corinthians 8:4, Mark 12:29-30, and 1 John 5:21. The idea of the third of the Ten Commandments (Deuteronomy 5:11) is amplified in the New Covenant to include our actions and not just our words (Titus 1:16). That is, if we profess the name of the LORD/YHWH, we do so in vain if we do not obey Jesus Christ and God the Father (Matthew 7:21, Hebrews 5:9, Luke 6:46).
The idea of the fourth of the Ten Commandments of the Old Covenant (Deuteronomy 5:12-15) is amplified in the New Covenant to include every day of a Christian's life in Jesus Christ (Matthew 11:28-30, Hebrews 4:3,10, Luke 9:23). The idea of the fifth of the Ten Commandments (Deuteronomy 5:16) is repeated in the New Covenant (Ephesians 6:1-3) and amplified to include honoring every person who is older than us (1 Timothy 5:1-2). The idea of the sixth of the Ten Commandments (Deuteronomy 5:17) is repeated in the New Covenant (Revelation 21:8, Galatians 5:21) and amplified to include hatred by itself (1 John 3:15), or unjustified anger by itself, or name-calling by itself (Matthew 5:21-22).
The idea of the seventh of the Ten Commandments of the Old Covenant (Deuteronomy 5:18) is repeated in the New Covenant (Galatians 5:19-21) and amplified to include lust by itself (Matthew 5:28). The idea of the eighth of the Ten Commandments (Deuteronomy 5:19) is repeated in the New Covenant (1 Corinthians 6:10). The idea of the ninth of the Ten Commandments (Deuteronomy 5:20) is repeated in the New Covenant (Matthew 15:19, cf. Revelation 22:15c). The idea of the tenth of the Ten Commandments (Deuteronomy 5:21) is repeated in the New Covenant (Luke 12:15, Ephesians 5:5; 1 Corinthians 6:10).
So there is no need to go back to the Ten Commandments of the Old Covenant. The New Covenant has all of them covered. Indeed, the New Covenant forbids all manner of sins for those who want to be ultimately saved from hell (1 Corinthians 6:9-10, Galatians 5:19-21).
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(Re: Would not a change of the law rob the Jews of their identity?)
No, for Jewish Christians retain their genetic identity as Jews (Acts 22:3, Romans 11:1). And their former identification with the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law has simply been replaced by their identification with the better, New Covenant law of Jesus Christ (John 14:15, Hebrews 7:22, Jeremiah 31:31-34), who is Himself a Jew (John 4:9,22, Luke 2:21).
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