Notes: 1 Timothy 3:3 To 2 Timothy 2:14

*1 Timothy 3:3 / *1 Tim. 3:3 -

The original Greek word (plektes: G4131) translated as "striker" can mean a "smiter", or a "quarrelsome" person (Strong's Greek Dictionary).

The Greek word (amachos: G0269) translated as "not a brawler" can mean "peaceable".

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*1 Timothy 3:7 / *1 Tim. 3:7 -

The original Greek word (oneidismos: G3680) translated as fall into "reproach" can mean "be reviled".

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The Greek word (pagis: G3803) translated as "snare" can mean "trap", or "temptation" (Strong's Greek Dictionary).

So falling into the "the snare of the devil" (1 Timothy 3:7) would mean being tempted to sin by the devil (1 Corinthians 7:5b), like even Jesus Christ Himself was tempted (Matthew 4:1-11), yet without committing sin (Hebrews 4:15).

It is this connection between temptation to sin and the devil which has caused the pope to suggest that The Lord's Prayer be changed from saying: "lead us not into temptation" (Matthew 6:13), to saying: "do not let us fall into temptation". For God never tempts us to commit sin (James 1:13-14).

But the original Greek word (peirasmos: G3986) translated as "temptation" in Matthew 6:13 does not have to mean temptation to sin, but can simply refer to when something comes to "try" (1 Peter 4:12) a person, in the sense of any "trial" or suffering of any kind (James 1:2-3; compare the idea of Romans 5:3). For while God never tempts people to commit sin (James 1:13-14), he can still try them in other ways (e.g. Genesis 22:1-19).

Also, the original Greek word (poneros: G4190) translated as "evil" in Matthew 6:13 does not have to mean only moral evil, or sin, but can simply refer to anything "grievous" (Revelation 16:2), or which causes "harm" (Acts 28:21), whether physical or spiritual.

So "lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from evil" (Matthew 6:13) can simply mean: "please do not test us, but keep us from everything grievous or harmful". Compare the prayer of Jabez in 1 Chronicles 4:10.

Also, we must in no way get rid of the "lead us" part of Matthew 6:13. For it can stand also by itself, in the sense of reading Matthew 6:13 as saying: "please lead us, but not into any testing". That is, we should always want God to lead us generally in everything that we do or experience.

(See also section 3 of Revelation 3:10 below)

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*1 Timothy 3:8 / *1 Tim. 3:8 -

The original Greek word (dilogos: G1351) translated as "doubletongued" can mean "equivocal" (Strong's Greek Dictionary).

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*1 Timothy 3:13 / *1 Tim. 3:13 -

The original Greek word (peripoieomai: G4046) translated as "purchase" can simply mean "acquire". In this context, money is in no way involved. Contrast Acts 8:18-20, from which the term "simony" originates.

The Greek word (bathmos: G0898) translated as a good "degree" can mean a "grade of dignity" (Strong's Greek Dictionary).

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*1 Timothy 3:15 / *1 Tim. 3:15 -

The original Greek word (stulos: G4769) translated as "pillar" can mean "support".

The Greek word (hedraioma: G1477) translated as "ground" can mean "steadfastness".

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(Re: Is the Church itself the *pillar and ground of the truth?)

No, for the first part of 1 Timothy 3:15, which says that the house of God is the Church, does not change what the second part of 1 Timothy 3:15 says: that the living God is the pillar and ground of the truth, which is what other verses also show (John 14:6, Ephesians 4:21, cf. 1 Timothy 2:4 and John 17:3).

We are assured that at least some people in the Church will continue in the truth until Jesus Christ's future, Second Coming. For there will be true Christians who will still be "alive and remain" at that time (1 Thessalonians 4:15-17). But the way that they will continue in the truth will not be by replacing God Himself with Church leaders as their source of truth. For Church leaders are fallible (e.g. Matthew 16:23, Galatians 2:11-14, Luke 22:34). It is only by sticking close to God's own infallible Word the Bible (2 Timothy 3:16, Acts 17:11b, John 17:17) that Christians can be sure not to be led astray by any Church leaders who might be teaching false doctrines which contradict God's Word (2 Timothy 4:2-4; 1 Timothy 4:1, John 8:31b, Mark 8:35-38).

This could become especially important in our future, for... (See Revelation 13:11 below)

(Re: *Wolves)

Because all humans (except Jesus Christ) are fallible, the Church itself (unlike God's own Word the Bible: 2 Timothy 3:16 to 4:4) has never been a perfect model for Christian doctrine and practice. There have always been wrong divisions (Acts 6:1; 1 Corinthians 1:12-13; 1 Corinthians 3:4) and heresies in the Church (1 Corinthians 11:18-19). For even those whom God's Holy Spirit has made leaders in the Church (Acts 20:28) can wrongly employ their free will to teach wrong doctrines and practices which increase their power over people in the Church (Acts 20:30, cf. also 3 John 1:9-10). They and their followers can mistakenly forget the warnings of 1 Peter 5:3, Matthew 20:25-27, and Matthew 23:8-12.

Also, even Satan's ministers can transform themselves into "apostles" of Christ (2 Corinthians 11:13-15, cf. also Matthew 7:15). And even those truly appointed as apostles by Jesus can wrongly employ their free will to fall from their office (Acts 1:17,20b,25). So even the teachings of apostles must be checked against God's own Word the Bible (Acts 17:11b). So how much more must the doctrine of lesser "teachers" in the Church (1 Corinthians 12:28, Ephesians 4:11) also be checked against the Bible, to make sure that what they are teaching is not mistaken (2 Peter 2:1-3; 2 Timothy 4:2-4)?

~

(Re: What is it with evangelicals' insistence that all of God's Words are in the Bible. Why do they want to limit God?)

God can speak outside of the Bible, through Christian prophets (1 Corinthians 12:28; 1 Corinthians 14:29, Acts 13:1-2, Acts 11:27-28). So the purpose of the Bible is not to limit what God can say. Instead, it is to limit what people can say and then claim that it is from God. That is, if they teach a doctrine contrary to God's Word the Bible (when it is taken as a whole), then that doctrine must be false. And if they teach a doctrine which does not contradict the Bible, but which is also not found in the Bible, then that doctrine is not necessarily true or false.

~

(Re: *Tradition)

There are incorrect traditions from fallible men (Colossians 2:8; 1 Peter 1:18) which contradict God's Word (Mark 7:13). And there are correct traditions from God's Word (2 Thessalonians 2:15, 2 Thessalonians 3:6; 2 Timothy 3:16, John 17:17, John 8:31b). There are also man-made traditions which, even though they do not contradict God's Word, they go beyond it (cf. 1 Corinthians 4:6b), and so they are not binding on Christians, who can choose for themselves whether or not they will follow such traditions (cf. Romans 14:5-6).

~

(Re: Is any distinction between the Church and the Bible a false dichotomy?)

No, for the Church consists of fallible people (e.g. Matthew 16:23, Galatians 2:11-14, Luke 22:34), while the Bible is infallible (2 Timothy 3:16).

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(Re: But why trust the Church's determination of the canon of scripture?)

See the "canon" section of Matthew 4:4 above.

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(Re: Do *sola scripturists elevate the Bible too highly? Should they sacrifice animals to it?)

It is impossible to elevate too highly either God (Revelation 5:13, Hebrews 7:26, Ephesians 1:21) or the Bible for what it is (2 Timothy 3:16, Isaiah 55:9, Psalms 138:2b). But this does not mean that Christians need to offer animal sacrifices to God or the Bible (cf. Hebrews 10:8). Instead, Christians should be offering to God their own bodies in service to Him daily as living sacrifices (Romans 12:1-2; 2 Timothy 3:16-17). And Christians must be willing to be killed before they would deny God or any part of His Word the Bible (Revelation 6:9, Revelation 20:4, Mark 8:35-38, John 8:31b).

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(Re: So do you worship the Bible?)

No, for the Bible is not elevated in the sense of worshipping it as if it was a fourth Person of the Trinity. Instead, the Bible is elevated in the sense of acknowledging that because it is God's Word, it is infallible (2 Timothy 3:16 to 4:4). And in the sense that because it is God's Word, we must be willing to be killed before we would deny any part of it (Revelation 6:9, Revelation 20:4, Mark 8:35-38, John 8:31b).

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(Re: So if someone elevated the Bible as a fourth Person of the Trinity, they would be elevating the Bible too highly?)

Yes, for while it is impossible to elevate the Bible too highly for what it is (God's infallible Word, which we must be willing to be killed for), it is possible to elevate the Bible too highly for what it is not (a fourth Person of the Trinity).

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(Re: Good luck convincing the *JWs of the Trinity through sola scriptura)

If JWs become convinced to believe the truth of the Trinity, it will be through the Bible that they will be miraculously convinced (cf. Romans 10:17, Isaiah 55:11), by God's Holy Spirit wielding the scriptures within them (Ephesians 6:17b, Hebrews 4:12). It will not be through any mortal-human wisdom (1 Corinthians 2:11b-16), or any idea of a purportedly infallible Church, which in fact consists of fallible people (e.g. Matthew 16:23, Galatians 2:11-14, Luke 22:34), who can wrongly employ their free will to veer away from the truth of the Bible (2 Timothy 4:2-4; 1 Timothy 4:1, Mark 8:35-38). So if JW's do not believe the Bible itself teaching the Trinity, then they will not be convinced to believe in the Trinity no matter what anyone in the Church says (cf. Luke 16:31, John 5:47).

(See the scriptures referenced under John 1:1,14 above)

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(Re: Can't you get the Bible to say anything that you want, armed with the right arsenal of verses?)

No, for the misinterpretation of some verses should be able to be corrected by other verses (2 Timothy 3:16, Isaiah 28:9-10; 1 Corinthians 2:13).

(See Isaiah 28:9 above)

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(Re: Were not errant bishops refuted in the past by the people in the Church, and not by the Bible?)

On what did the people in the Church ultimately base their refutation of the errant bishops, if not the Bible (2 Timothy 3:16)? Also, is the Church a democracy, instead of a theocracy? That is, if a majority of the people in the Church were to someday vote to reject parts of the Bible which they did not like, would that be valid (2 Timothy 4:2-4; 1 Timothy 4:1, Mark 8:35-38, John 8:31b)?

(Compare sections 2-4 of Romans 1:26 above)

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(Re: Was it not the Church that refuted the errant bishops?)

Were not the errant bishops part of the Church, along with the people? Did the errant bishops then refute themselves, or did one part of the Church (the people) refute another (errant) part of the Church? Also, is one part of the Church (the people) infallible, while another part (their bishops) is fallible? If so, then what sense does it make to have the infallible part of the Church led by its fallible part? And if not, and both the people and the bishops are fallible, then is not the entire Church fallible? And if it is, then what sense does it make to claim that the fallible Church is the pillar and ground of the truth, instead of the infallible God and His Word the Holy Bible (1 Timothy 3:15b, John 14:6; 2 Timothy 3:16, John 17:17, Acts 17:11b, John 8:31b)?

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*1 Timothy 3:16 / *1 Tim. 3:16 -

The original Greek word (dikaioo: G1344) translated as "justified" can mean "shown as innocent" (Strong's Greek Dictionary).

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*1 Timothy 4:1-3 / *1 Tim. 4:1 / *1 Tim. 4:3 -

1 Timothy 4:1 means that some people who have faith in Jesus Christ and His Gospel will depart from that faith (Luke 8:13; 2 Timothy 4:2-4, Hebrews 6:4-8).

1 Timothy 4:1-3 will be fulfilled during the reign of the future Antichrist, who will teach Gnosticism (1 John 4:3; 2 John 1:7), which requires celibacy and vegetarianism.

~

(Re: Was man originally *vegetarian?)

Yes, insofar as in the earliest days of mankind described in the Bible, God allowed man to eat only plants (Genesis 1:29). It was only after Noah's Flood that God allowed Noah and his family to start eating animals as well as plants. And they could eat any animal that moved (Genesis 9:3).

Also, on the future, New Earth, as in a new surface for the earth, God will miraculously make it so that all animals will be herbivores (Isaiah 65:17,25).

But beware of the idea (which is sometimes put forth) that Christians must be vegetarians:

[1 Timothy 4:1-6, emphasis vv. 3b-5]

Here the enforced vegetarianism, like the enforced non-marriage ("Forbidding to marry" in 1 Timothy 4:3), refers to what the future Antichrist will bring upon the world. For he will be a Gnostic (1 John 4:3; 2 John 1:7). And Gnosticism forbids eating animals, and forbids marriage.

(See the "Gnosticism" section of 1 John 4:3 below. Also, see section 2 of Numbers 12 above)

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*1 Timothy 4:4-5 / *1 Tim. 4:4 -

See Romans 14:14 above.

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(Re: Does 1 Timothy 4 mean that we must keep the Old Testament food laws? You brought the food subject up using this chapter)

The food subject was brought up not by using 1 Timothy 4 alone. And it should be understood in the context of the other New Testament passages regarding food, referenced under Romans 14:14 above. Also, 1 Timothy 4 cannot be understood in a way which contradicts what was shown from the Bible in the "Law" section of Ephesians 2:15 above.

~
(Re: Is 1 Timothy 4:4-5 talking only about meat sacrificed to idols?)

Note that nothing in 1 Timothy 4:4-5 or its context requires that it is only talking about meat sacrificed to idols.

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*1 Timothy 4:7 / *1 Tim. 4:7 -

The original Greek word (bebelos: G0952) translated as "profane", like the English word, can mean "unholy".

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*1 Timothy 4:10b / *1 Tim. 4:10b -

See 1 Timothy 2:4 above...

Regarding non-Christians, 1 Timothy 4:10b would apply only to non-Christians who are God's elect (e.g. Romans 11:28) and so will become Christians at some point during their lifetime (Acts 13:48b).

(See Romans 9:11 above)

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*1 Timothy 4:16 / *1 Tim. 4:16 -

(Doctrine)

See 2 John 1:9 below.

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*1 Timothy 5:9 / *1 Tim. 5:9 -

The original Greek word (katalego: G2639) translated as "taken into the number" can mean "enrolled", in this case into a group of needy Christians who receive all of their financial support directly from their local church. This group was not to include anyone who had any family members who could support them (1 Timothy 5:16; 1 Timothy 5:4; 1 Timothy 5:8).

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*1 Timothy 5:11 / *1 Tim. 5:11 -

(But the younger widows refuse)

Meaning, refuse to "take them into the number".

(See 1 Timothy 5:9 above)

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*1 Timothy 5:12 / *1 Tim. 5:12 -

(They have cast off their first faith)

Here the original Greek word (protos: G4413) translated as "first" does not have to mean first in a chronological sense, but can be used in the sense of "best" (Luke 15:22). And in 1 Timothy 5:12 the Greek word (pistis: G4102) translated as "faith" does not have to mean belief in Jesus Christ and His Gospel, but can mean "fidelity" toward someone, such as being faithful to one's spouse. Compare Titus 2:10, referring to the "fidelity" (pistis) of a servant to his human master.

So "they have cast off their first faith" (1 Timothy 5:12) does not have to refer to apostasy, a denial of their belief in Jesus Christ and His Gospel, but can mean: "they have cast off their best fidelity". That is, 1 Timothy 5:11b-12 seems to refer to what we today would call lapsed nuns, those who have broken a solemn vow to God to be forever married only to Christ. The apostle Paul would call this vow as having been "best" because celibacy is the best thing (1 Corinthians 7:7-8,32-35), with a caveat (1 Corinthians 7:9).

(See also 1 Corinthians 7:7 above)

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*1 Timothy 5:20 / *1 Tim. 5:20 -

(Re: Is this directed toward elders only, for they should be above reproach?)

1 Timothy 5:1 may forbid the application of 1 Timothy 5:20 to elders. Also, 1 Timothy 5:19 refers to a singular elder, while 1 Timothy 5:20 refers to a plural "them", suggesting that the two verses are not referring to the same thing. 1 Timothy 5:20 could apply to any members of the congregation (except possibly elders). Also, even Christians who are not elders should be above reproach (1 Timothy 5:14).

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*1 Timothy 5:21 / *1 Tim. 5:21 -

(Re: Does "elect angels" mean that there are nonelect angels?)

Possibly, although it is not clear how nonelection would work with angelic beings as it works with humans. That is, how could an angelic being start out unsaved, with no chance of ever being saved? For even Satan (as Lucifer) was saved before his fall (Ezekiel 28:14-15, Isaiah 14:12). Perhaps nonelection with regard to angels had to do with their fate being that they would eventually choose to follow Satan into rebellion against God. The "elect angels" (1 Timothy 5:21) would then be the same as the still "holy angels" (Matthew 25:31).

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*1 Timothy 5:22 / *1 Tim. 5:22 -

This could include the laying on of hands to impart Holy Spirit baptism (Acts 19:6, Acts 8:17). That is, 1 Timothy 5:22b could suggest that this (just as the laying on of hands to impart a specific ministry: Acts 6:5-6, Acts 13:2-3; 1 Timothy 4:14) should be delayed in cases where a Christian is living in unrepentant sin.

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*1 Timothy 6:13 / *1 Tim. 6:13 -

The original Greek word (zoopoieo: G2227) translated as "quickeneth" means "giveth life" (2 Corinthians 3:6).

(Compare 1 Peter 4:5 below)

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*1 Timothy 6:16 / *1 Tim. 6:16 -

This means that only God has immortality in Himself (John 5:26). But He can grant it as a gift to Christians (Romans 6:23). Also, the future, eternal, conscious suffering of non-Christians must not be considered as eternal life, but as an eternal, conscious, ongoing, second death (Revelation 21:8, Revelation 20:10,15, Revelation 14:10-11, Matthew 25:41,46, Mark 9:45-46, Isaiah 66:24).

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*1 Timothy 6:18 / *1 Tim. 6:18 -

The original Greek word (koinonikos: G2843) translated as "willing to communicate" means "willing to share", in the sense of willing to share material wealth with those in need (1 Timothy 6:17-18; 2 Corinthians 8:14).

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*1 Timothy 6:20b / *1 Tim. 6:20b -

(Re: *Knowledge / *Gnosis)

The right knowledge/knowing (Greek: gnosis/ginosko: G1108/G1097) is necessary for people to be saved from hell (John 17:3; 1 John 5:20; 2 Corinthians 4:6; 2 John 1:1b; 2 Peter 1:5,10-11, Luke 1:77). But what Gnosticism teaches is a knowledge (gnosis) falsely so called (1 Timothy 6:20b; see the original Greek).

(See the "Gnosticism" section of 1 John 4:3 below)

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*2 Timothy 1:7 / *2 Tim. 1:7 -

When this says that God has not given Christians the spirit of "fear", the original Greek word (deilia: G1167) means "timidity". And the context means that a Christian is not to be timid before people (cf. Proverbs 28:1) because he is ashamed of the Gospel of Jesus Christ (2 Timothy 1:8), or afraid of suffering affliction from people for preaching the Gospel (2 Timothy 1:8b, Luke 12:4, Hebrews 13:6). So 2 Timothy 1:7 means that God has not given Christians the spirit of the fear of people (Proverbs 29:25, Matthew 10:28). God has given Christians the Spirit of the fear of God (Matthew 10:28b, Isaiah 11:2, Romans 11:20-22, Romans 2:6-8, Philippians 2:12b; 1 Peter 1:17, 1 Peter 2:17, Hebrews 10:26-29, Hebrews 12:28-29, 2 Corinthians 7:1, Ephesians 5:21, Acts 9:31). But Christians can nonetheless wrongly employ their free will to quench God's Holy Spirit within them (1 Thessalonians 5:19), and so they can wrongly lose their fear of God (Romans 11:20-22).

(See also the "fear" section 2 of Romans 11:20 above. And see 1 John 4:18 below)

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*2 Timothy 1:9 / *2 Tim. 1:9 -

This means that predestination/election (God's choosing), and initial salvation, are not based on works (Romans 9:11, Ephesians 1:4-11; 2 Thessalonians 2:13).

(See Ephesians 2:8 and Romans 9:11 above)

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*2 Timothy 1:10 / *2 Tim. 1:10 -

The original Greek word (katargeo: G2673) translated as "abolished" can mean "made of none effect" (Romans 4:14b).

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*2 Timothy 1:12b / *2 Tim. 1:12b -

God is able to keep that which Christians have committed to Him against that day (2 Timothy 1:12b). But God is not willing to take away their free will. So it is possible for them to wrongly employ their free will in such a way that they will ultimately lose their salvation (Hebrews 10:26-29, Hebrews 6:4-8, Matthew 25:26,30).

(See the "NOSAS" section of Hebrews 3:6 below)

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*2 Timothy 1:15 / *2 Tim. 1:15 -

This was written at the time of Paul the prisoner's (2 Timothy 1:8) first testimony at his trial (2 Timothy 4:16-17) before Caesar (Acts 25:12) in Rome (2 Timothy 1:16-18). Those who rejected the apostle Paul at that time (in the first century AD) could have done so because they, unlike Onesiphorus, were ashamed of Paul's chain (2 Timothy 1:16), ashamed of Paul as a prisoner (2 Timothy 1:8), because they had the spirit of fear that they would become partakers of the afflictions of the Gospel of Jesus Christ (2 Timothy 1:7-8), that they would suffer imprisonment and martyrdom for Jesus and His Gospel along with Paul if they publicly supported him. They could have publicly rejected Paul temporarily because at that time they, like Demas, still "loved this present world" (2 Timothy 4:10).

(See Mark 13:9 above)

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*2 Timothy 2:10 / *2 Tim. 2:10 -

This refers to elect non-Christians, who have yet to become Christians (e.g. Romans 11:28).

(See Romans 9:11 above)

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*2 Timothy 2:12 / *2 Tim. 2:12 -

This means that "we" Christians can wrongly employ our free will to deny Jesus Christ to escape suffering during a persecution against Christians (Matthew 24:9-13). And such denial (such apostasy) will result in Jesus denying us (our losing our salvation) at His future, Second Coming (Mark 8:35-38, Hebrews 6:4-8, John 15:6).

(See Hebrews 6:4 below)

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*2 Timothy 2:13 / *2 Tim. 2:13 -

This means that if Christians come to believe not (Luke 8:13; 1 Timothy 4:1; 2 Timothy 4:3-4, Matthew 13:21), if they come to commit apostasy (2 Thessalonians 2:3), this does not affect God's faithfulness to Himself. For He cannot deny Himself. But He will deny Christians who commit apostasy (2 Timothy 2:12), to the ultimate loss of their salvation (Hebrews 6:4-8, John 15:6, Mark 8:35-38).

(See Hebrews 6:4 below)

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*2 Timothy 2:14 / *2 Tim. 2:14 -

The original Greek word (katastrophe: G2692) translated as "subverting", like the English word, can mean "overthrowing", in the sense of overthrowing their Christian faith (cf. 2 Timothy 2:18b).

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