*2 Timothy 2:15b / *2 Tim. 2:15b -
(*Rightly dividing the word of truth)
This refers to how the Bible was originally written down in manuscripts which had no spaces between the words, no punctuation, and no distinguishing capitalization or non-capitalization. That is, it was just an unbroken stream of upper or lower-case letters. So, for example, Genesis 1:6-7 would have looked like this:
andgodsaidlettherebeafirmamentinthemidstofthewaters
andletitdividethewatersfromthewatersandgodmadethefir
mamentanddividedthewaterswhichwereunderthefirmam
entfromthewaterswhichwereabovethefirmamentanditw
This meant that those who studied the Bible (2 Timothy 2:15a) had to rightly divide between the words to arrive at the correct meaning. So, in the example above, if one mistakenly divided: "watersandletitdividethewaters" into the words: "water: sand, let it divide the waters", one would come away with the mistaken idea that Genesis 1:6-7 refers to God creating sand bars, instead of Him creating the atmosphere (the firmament, the first heaven, in which the birds fly: Genesis 1:20b) to hold water up in the air (such as in rain clouds), above and separate from the water in the ocean.
~
(Re: Are we to rightly divide between verses related to Israel and verses related to the Church?)
See the "Tribes" section of Romans 11:17 above.
~
(Re: Are we to rightly divide between God/Holy Spirit and Jesus/Holy *Ghost?)
No:
Ephesians 4:30 And grieve not the holy Spirit [pneuma] of God, whereby ye are sealed unto the day of redemption.
2 Corinthians 13:14 The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, and the love of God, and the communion of the Holy Ghost [pneuma], be with you all. Amen.
In the KJV New Testament, the verses which refer to the Holy "Spirit" (e.g. Ephesians 4:30) and the verses which refer to the Holy "Ghost" (e.g. 2 Corinthians 13:14) are translated from the same original Greek word: "pneuma" (G4151). So there is no division at all.
Also, even in the KJV the Holy "Ghost" spoke in the Old Testament. For Hebrews 3:7-11 says that the Holy Ghost spoke Psalms 95:7b-11. And Hebrews 10:15-17 says that the Holy Ghost spoke Jeremiah 31:33-34. And Mark 12:36 says that the Holy Ghost spoke Psalms 110:1. And Acts 1:16,20 says that the Holy Ghost spoke Psalms 69:25. And Acts 28:25b-27 says that the Holy Ghost spoke Isaiah 6:9-10. See also what 2 Peter 1:20-21 and 1 Peter 1:10-11 say.
Also, Matthew 12:32, Matthew 28:19, Luke 3:22, and 2 Corinthians 13:14 are able to distinguish between Jesus and the Holy Ghost in some way.
--
*2 Timothy 2:17 / *2 Tim. 2:17 -
The original Greek word (gangraina: G1044) translated as "canker" can refer to an "ulcer", or to "gangrene".
--
*2 Timothy 2:18 / *2 Tim. 2:18 -
(Re: Full preterism?)
See the "Countering" section of 2 Thessalonians 2:1-8 above.
--
*2 Timothy 2:20-21 / *2 Tim. 2:20 / *2 Tim. 2:21 -
This relates only to elect individuals, who were created by God to be vessels of His mercy, not to nonelect individuals, who were created by God to be vessels of His wrath (Romans 9:11-24). That is, 2 Timothy 2:20-21 means that even among elect individuals there can be honor and dishonor, depending on whether or not they obey God (1 Thessalonians 4:2-8).
(See also Romans 9:11 above)
--
*2 Timothy 2:25-26 / *2 Tim. 2:25 -
Elect sinners are able to repent once God has miraculously given them that ability (2 Timothy 2:25, Acts 11:18). But this ability does not take away their free will. So subsequent to their initial repentance, they can wrongly employ their free will to go back to committing a sin without repentance, to the ultimate loss of their salvation (Hebrews 10:26-29; 1 Corinthians 9:27, Luke 12:45-46).
(See Hebrews 10:26 below)
~
(Re: Does 2 Timothy 2:25-26 mean that God grants repentance even to nonelect individuals, for it refers to total depravity?)
No, for even elect individuals are in total depravity before they become Christians (Romans 3:9-12, Ephesians 2:2-3).
--
*2 Timothy 3:3 / *2 Tim. 3:3 -
The original Greek word (akrates: G0193) translated as "incontinent", like the English word, can mean "without self-control" (Strong's Greek Dictionary).
--
*2 Timothy 3:4 / *2 Tim. 3:4 -
The original Greek word (propetes: G4312) translated as "heady", like the English word, can mean "rash" (cf. Acts 19:36), in the sense of hasty, lacking caution.
The Greek word (tuphoo: G5187) translated as "highminded" can mean "conceited". The modern definition of the English word "high-minded" would not apply here, for it means "marked by elevated principles and feelings" (Webster's).
--
*2 Timothy 3:5 / *2 Tim. 3:5 -
Here the key phrase is: "Having a form of godliness", that is, those who claim to be Christians but live in an evil manner (2 Timothy 3:2-5). Compare 1 Corinthians 5:11, where "brother" is meant figuratively in the sense of anyone claiming to be a Christian.
2 Timothy 3:5b does not mean to turn away from non-Christians.
(See paragraph 3 of 1 Corinthians 9:1 above)
--
*2 Timothy 3:8 / *2 Tim. 3:8 -
The original Greek word (adokimos: G0096) translated as "reprobate" can mean "rejected" (Hebrews 6:8).
--
*2 Timothy 3:15 / *2 Tim. 3:15 -
The Bible is holy (2 Timothy 3:15) because it was written under the inspiration of God's Holy Spirit (2 Timothy 3:16; 2 Peter 1:21).
Holiness is the opposite of uncleanness (1 Thessalonians 4:7; 2 Corinthians 7:1).
--
*2 Timothy 3:16 / *2 Tim. 3:16 -
This by itself can never prove to anyone that the Bible is God's Word. 2 Timothy 3:16 will be believed only by those individuals who have already received God's miraculous gift of faith in Jesus Christ and His Gospel (Ephesians 2:8, John 6:65; 1 Corinthians 3:5b, Romans 12:3b, Hebrews 12:2), and have received some measure of God's Holy Spirit (1 Corinthians 2:11-16).
(See Romans 9:11 above)
~
(Re: How do we distinguish between God's wisdom and that which is unspiritual or demonic?)
By seeing how something lines up with God's Word the Bible (2 Timothy 3:16).
~
(Re: Is the Bible's *inerrancy a stupid idea, because it can be defeated by just a single error anywhere in the Bible?)
No, for the Bible's inerrancy is taught by the Bible itself (2 Timothy 3:16-17), while the idea of the Bible's errancy renders it useless. For then we can claim that any part of the Bible which we personally do not like is in error. And so we vitiate the whole purpose of the Bible, which is to be "profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works" (2 Timothy 3:16b-17). That is, if the Bible contained errors, then we could reject its doctrine, reproof, correction, and instruction in righteousness whenever we personally felt like it (2 Timothy 4:3-4), claiming that it is in error in those instances.
(See 2 Timothy 4:3 below. Also, see paragraph 3 of section 5 of Matthew 4:4 above)
--
*2 Timothy 4:1 / *2 Tim. 4:1 -
(Re: Are Jesus' future appearing and His Kingdom at two different times?)
No, for in 2 Timothy 4:1 the "and" between Jesus Christ's future "appearing" and His "kingdom" is not contradicting that His physical Kingdom will be established at His future appearing (Second Coming), immediately after the future Tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24 (Matthew 24:29-31, Revelation 19:7 to 20:6, Zechariah 14:3-21). Instead, that "and" in 2 Timothy 4:1 is used in the same sense as, for example, the "and" in 2 Timothy 4:6, which did not mean that the apostle Paul's being "offered" and his "departure" would happen at two different times.
~
(Re: Judgment / Amillennialism?)
2 Timothy 4:1 can include both of the future final-judgments. For Jesus Christ will finally-judge only the Church immediately at His future appearing (Second Coming) (Psalms 50:3-5, cf. Mark 13:27, Matthew 25:19-30; 2 Corinthians 5:10, Luke 12:45-48), while non-Christians will not be finally-judged until the Great White Throne Judgment (Revelation 20:11-15). And the Great White Throne Judgment can be thought of as the third and final stage of the physical aspect of Jesus Christ's Kingdom, the first stage being His future, post-Second-Coming, 1,000-year (Millennial) reign on the earth with the physically resurrected Church (Revelation 19:7 to 20:6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29, Zechariah 14:3-21), and the second stage being after the 1,000 years, when the Gog/Magog rebellion, its defeat, and then an at-least seven-year aftermath will occur (Revelation 20:7-10, Ezekiel chapters 38-39, Ezekiel 39:9b).
--
*2 Timothy 4:2 / *2 Tim. 4:2 -
The original Greek word (ephistemi: G2186) translated as "instant" can mean "present" (Acts 28:2).
The Greek word (eukairos: G2122) translated as "in season" can mean "when it is convenient" (cf. Mark 14:11).
The Greek word (akairos: G0171) translated as "out of season" can mean "when it is not convenient".
--
*2 Timothy 4:3-4 / *2 Tim. 4:3 -
This means that in a wrong desire to continue in their lusts without repentance, Christians can reach the point where they become no longer able to endure the sound doctrine of the Bible, and instead seek out and latch onto any false teachings which will help to support them in their lusts (1 Timothy 4:1-2).
~
(Re: Does the flood of deception begin with the very thought process which says: It is up to us to choose what we want to believe?)
That brings to mind 2 Timothy 4:3-4, where the original Greek word (epithumia: G1939) translated as "lusts" can include simple "desires" (cf. Luke 22:15, Philippians 1:23), which would include doctrinal desires: That is, what we want to believe rather than what is actually the truth. Compare Ephesians 2:3, which refers to when we wrongly fulfill what our own minds want to think.
For example, some people reject the idea of the eternal suffering of non-Christians, because these people want to believe that God's character forbids it. But the truth is that the eternal suffering which God will mete out to non-Christians (Matthew 25:41,46, Revelation 20:10,15, Revelation 14:10-11, Mark 9:45-46) will not be against His character, but will express a vital part of it.
For the eternal suffering of non-Christians will not be some evil, capricious act of cruelty on God's part, but an eternal expression of that aspect of His perfect holiness/goodness which is called His righteous judgment and wrath against evil (Romans 2:5, Romans 9:22, Hebrews 12:28b-29, Revelation 14:10-11).
There is no Bible verse which requires the annihilation of non-Christians, just as there is no Bible verse which requires the ultimate salvation of everyone from hell. So there is no reason for anyone to believe in either of these things, beyond their own, personal desire to believe in them.
--
*2 Timothy 4:5 / *2 Tim. 4:5 -
The original Greek word (nepho: G3525) translated as to "watch" can mean to "be sober" (1 Thessalonians 5:8).
(See also the "Watching" section of Matthew 24:36 above)
--
*2 Timothy 4:8 / *2 Tim. 4:8 -
(Appearing)
See 1 John 2:28 and Titus 2:13 below.
--
*2 Timothy 4:18 / *2 Tim. 4:18 -
This does not require once-saved-always-saved, for the apostle Paul knew that even he had to continue to do the right things (and to continue to repent from any wrong actions) if he was not to be ultimately cast away by God (1 Corinthians 9:27, Philippians 3:11-14; 2 Corinthians 5:9, Romans 2:6-8; 2 Timothy 2:12).
(See the "NOSAS" section of Hebrews 3:6 below)
--
*Titus 2:11 -
(Re: A bad, non-KJV translation)
The idea of the original Greek of Titus 2:11 is: "the grace of God that brings salvation has appeared to all men".
(See paragraphs 2-4 of section 5 of John 3:16 above)
--
*Titus 2:12b -
(Re: An age of grace?)
See section 2 of Ephesians 1:21 above.
--
*Titus 2:13 -
(Appearing)
Here, Jesus Christ's glorious appearing is His future, Second Coming, when He will appear in glory (Matthew 24:30).
~
(*Blessed hope)
The blessed hope (Titus 2:13) is the hope of eternal life: "In hope of eternal life" (Titus 1:2), "that blessed hope" (Titus 2:13), "the hope of eternal life" (Titus 3:7), by which is meant the Christian hope of obtaining an immortal, physical resurrection body (Romans 8:23-25, Philippians 3:21, Luke 24:39) at Jesus Christ's future, Second Coming (1 Corinthians 15:21-23,51-53; 1 Thessalonians 4:15-16, Revelation 19:7 to 20:6), which will not occur until immediately after the future Tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24 (Matthew 24:29-31; 2 Thessalonians 2:1-8, Revelation 19:7 to 20:6). Also, Jesus Himself is the hope of Christians (1 Timothy 1:1b), for He Himself is eternal life (John 14:6), and only by believing in Him can people have eternal life (John 3:36).
(Re: A *pregnant analogy)
No Christians are hoping for the future Tribulation instead of Jesus Christ's Second Coming, even though those Christians who (rightly) hold to the post-tribulation-rapture view know that the Tribulation must come first (Matthew 24:29-31; 2 Thessalonians 2:1-8, Revelation 19:7 to 20:6; cf. 1 Peter 4:12-13). For a Christian (whether male or female) who holds to the post-tribulation-rapture view is like a pregnant woman nearing the end of her term. She is not hoping for birthing pains instead of the birth of her child, but she knows that birthing pains must come first (John 16:21-22, Isaiah 26:17-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21-23).
(See also the first entry under Job above)
~
(*Looking for)
We are to be "looking for" Jesus Christ's future appearing (Titus 2:13), His Second Coming (Matthew 24:30). But the original Greek word (prosdechomai: G4327) translated as "looking for" does not mean to stare with our eyes with the hope of seeing someone come at any moment. Instead, it means "to await (with confidence or patience)" (Strong's Greek Dictionary), like in Luke 12:36, Luke 2:25, and Mark 15:43. For Jesus cannot come back at any moment (Acts 3:21). He cannot come back until at least two events happen first (2 Thessalonians 2:1-4). For His coming back to gather together (rapture) the Church must destroy the future Antichrist (2 Thessalonians 2:1,8). That is why Jesus' coming back to gather together (rapture) the Church will not be until immediately after the future Tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24 (Matthew 24:29-31, Mark 13:24-27), and why the Church will have to go through the Tribulation (Revelation 13:7-10, Revelation 14:12-13, Matthew 24:9-13).
(See also the "Watching" section of Matthew 24:36 above. And see Acts 3:21 above)
--
*Titus 3:5 -
(Not by works)
See Ephesians 2:8 above.
--
*Titus 3:8 -
Initial salvation by grace through faith without works (Ephesians 2:8-9, Titus 3:5, Romans 4:1-5) does not automatically produce good works. That is why Christians must be careful to maintain good works (Titus 3:8), and why it is possible for Christians to wrongly employ their free will to become utterly lazy without repentance, to the ultimate loss of their salvation (Matthew 25:26,30, John 15:2a, Romans 2:6-8).
(See Matthew 25:26 and John 15:2a above)
--
*Titus 3:11 -
The original Greek word (ekstrepho: G1612) translated as "subverted", like the English word, can mean "perverted" (Strong's Greek Dictionary).
--
*Hebrews / *Heb. -
The book of Hebrews is about the Church (Hebrews 2:12, Hebrews 12:23), the body of Jesus Christ (Hebrews 13:3, cf. 1 Corinthians 12:25-27).
(See John 15:5 and Galatians 3:29 above. Also, see James 1:1 below)
--
*Hebrews 1:1 / *Heb. 1:1 -
The original Greek word (polumeros: G4181) translated as "sundry times" is made up of two words (polus: G4183, and meros: G3313) which together can mean "many places". For polus can mean "many" (Hebrews 2:10), and meros can refer to places, whether physical places (Matthew 2:22, Matthew 15:21) or points in time (1 Corinthians 14:27).
--
*Hebrews 1:2 / *Heb. 1:2 -
(*Last days)
The "last days" began in the first century AD with Jesus Christ's first coming (Hebrews 1:2) and the Holy Spirit's pouring-out at the Pentecost in Acts 2 (Acts 2:16-17). The last days can be the last three, roughly 1,000-year "days" (2 Peter 3:8, Psalms 90:4), of the seven, roughly 1,000-year "days" from the creation of Adam in roughly 4,000 BC to the future end of the present earth and the creation of the New Earth (Revelation 21:1), as in a new surface for the earth, in roughly 3,000 AD. So the last "days" can be the roughly 3,000 years from Jesus' first coming to sometime after the future Millennium (of Revelation 20:4-6), which Millennium (1,000 years) will be part of the last, 1,000-year "day" (2 Peter 3:8), which could begin at Jesus' future, Second Coming (1 Corinthians 1:7-8).
(See the "After the Second Coming" section of Revelation 20:4 below)
Also, note that Jesus Christ came in the middle of the 7,000 years. For God puts His best in the middle, just as we put a sandwich's best part in the middle.
~
(He made the worlds)
Hebrews 1:1-2 is not contradicting that the world was made by God the Word (John 1:10), who has become flesh in Jesus Christ (John 1:1,14).
--
*Hebrews 1:4 to 2:17 / *Heb. 1:4 -
(Re: Is Jesus *Michael the archangel?)
No, for Jesus Christ is not any angel, but God the Son (Hebrews 1:4 to 2:17).
(See also the "Michael" section of Daniel 12:1(space) above)
--
*Hebrews 1:10-12 / *Heb. 1:10 -
(Re: Does "heavens" here mean the universe?)
No, see the "Ouranos" section of 2 Peter 3:10 below.
--
*Hebrews 1:14b / *Heb. 1:14b -
(Re: Can aliens be heirs of salvation?)
Under Psalms 8:3 above, see paragraph 8 of section 2; and see section 9.
--
*Hebrews 2:4 / *Heb. 2:4 -
This is not contradicting that God, at the time that the book of Hebrews was written in the first century AD, just as still today, continued to bear witness to His Word by signs and wonders. Also, during the future Tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24, are some Christians going to reject God's Two Witnesses simply because their ministry will involve them performing miracles (Revelation 11:3-6)?
~
(Re: Does Hebrews 2:4 mean that Spiritual gifts were only to authenticate God's messengers and their message?)
No, for another purpose is to edify those who are already Christians (1 Corinthians 14:4-5,12-13,26-31).
(See 1 Corinthians 12:8 above)
--
*Hebrews 2:5 / *Heb. 2:5 -
(Re: Does it include aliens?)
See section 9 of Psalms 8:3 above.
--
*Hebrews 2:8c / *Heb. 2:8c -
(Re: While we do not see Jesus Christ's reign on the earth, is it not still here? Do you know what the "right hand of God" is?)
Yes, and it is in heaven (Mark 16:19; 1 Peter 3:22, Acts 7:55). Hebrews 2:8c means that we do not yet see all things on the earth put under Jesus Christ's physical rule on the earth, because they will not be until His future, Second Coming, and then during the subsequent Millennium (Zechariah 14:3-21, Revelation 19:7 to 20:6, Micah 4:1-4, Psalms 66:3-4, Psalms 72:8-11).
(See also Matthew 28:18 above)
--
*Hebrews 2:9-11 / *Heb. 2:9 -
(Every man)
See John 1:7 above.
--
*Hebrews 2:14-15 / *Heb. 2:14 / *Heb. 2:15 -
Jesus Christ can deliver obedient Christians from the fear of death (Hebrews 2:15, Hebrews 5:9). For obedient Christians can be confident that death will be no loss for them, but gain, as it will bring their still-conscious souls into heaven to be with Jesus (Philippians 1:21,23; 2 Corinthians 5:8). But disobedient Christians should fear death, for they will go to hell (cf. Luke 12:5, Matthew 10:28) if they die in unrepentant sin (1 John 5:16, Hebrews 10:26-29; 1 Corinthians 9:27).
(See Hebrews 10:26 below)
~
(Re: Means that Satan is bound?)
No, see Colossians 2:15 above.
~
(Re: Destroy / G2673 = annihilate?)
No, see section 2 of 1 Corinthians 15:26 above.
--
*Hebrews 2:16-17 / *Heb. 2:16 -
(Re: Means that there are no aliens?)
Hebrews 2:16-17 can simply mean that Jesus Christ did not take on the nature of angels to save elect humans on the earth from hell. It does not forbid Jesus from taking on the nature of aliens on other planets to save elect aliens from hell.
--
*Hebrews 3:1 / *Heb. 3:1 -
(Re: *Apostolic succession?)
Jesus Christ Himself is the highest apostle (Hebrews 3:1), and He can ordain individuals directly, without any other apostles having to be involved (Acts 26:13-20, Galatians 1:1).
Also... (See Acts 14:14 above)
Also, if the pope today were the apostolic successor of Peter, then who today would be the apostolic successors of the at least thirteen other apostles besides Peter?
Did all of the other lines of apostolic succession peter out? And if so, how could this be? How could the Church today need only one apostolic successor while the early Church needed at least fourteen apostles?
What has happened?
(See also Matthew 16:19 above)
--
*Hebrews 3:6,12,14 / *Heb. 3:6 -
This shows that Christians have to continue believing in Jesus Christ and His Gospel to the end if they are to be ultimately saved from hell. And they can wrongly employ their free will to depart from this belief and the living God (1 Timothy 4:1, Colossians 1:23, Luke 8:13) to the ultimate loss of their salvation (Hebrews 6:4-8).
(See Hebrews 6:4 below)
-
Next entry / Prior / Table of Contents
Dec 23, 2018
(*Rightly dividing the word of truth)
This refers to how the Bible was originally written down in manuscripts which had no spaces between the words, no punctuation, and no distinguishing capitalization or non-capitalization. That is, it was just an unbroken stream of upper or lower-case letters. So, for example, Genesis 1:6-7 would have looked like this:
andgodsaidlettherebeafirmamentinthemidstofthewaters
andletitdividethewatersfromthewatersandgodmadethefir
mamentanddividedthewaterswhichwereunderthefirmam
entfromthewaterswhichwereabovethefirmamentanditw
This meant that those who studied the Bible (2 Timothy 2:15a) had to rightly divide between the words to arrive at the correct meaning. So, in the example above, if one mistakenly divided: "watersandletitdividethewaters" into the words: "water: sand, let it divide the waters", one would come away with the mistaken idea that Genesis 1:6-7 refers to God creating sand bars, instead of Him creating the atmosphere (the firmament, the first heaven, in which the birds fly: Genesis 1:20b) to hold water up in the air (such as in rain clouds), above and separate from the water in the ocean.
~
(Re: Are we to rightly divide between verses related to Israel and verses related to the Church?)
See the "Tribes" section of Romans 11:17 above.
~
(Re: Are we to rightly divide between God/Holy Spirit and Jesus/Holy *Ghost?)
No:
Ephesians 4:30 And grieve not the holy Spirit [pneuma] of God, whereby ye are sealed unto the day of redemption.
2 Corinthians 13:14 The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, and the love of God, and the communion of the Holy Ghost [pneuma], be with you all. Amen.
In the KJV New Testament, the verses which refer to the Holy "Spirit" (e.g. Ephesians 4:30) and the verses which refer to the Holy "Ghost" (e.g. 2 Corinthians 13:14) are translated from the same original Greek word: "pneuma" (G4151). So there is no division at all.
Also, even in the KJV the Holy "Ghost" spoke in the Old Testament. For Hebrews 3:7-11 says that the Holy Ghost spoke Psalms 95:7b-11. And Hebrews 10:15-17 says that the Holy Ghost spoke Jeremiah 31:33-34. And Mark 12:36 says that the Holy Ghost spoke Psalms 110:1. And Acts 1:16,20 says that the Holy Ghost spoke Psalms 69:25. And Acts 28:25b-27 says that the Holy Ghost spoke Isaiah 6:9-10. See also what 2 Peter 1:20-21 and 1 Peter 1:10-11 say.
Also, Matthew 12:32, Matthew 28:19, Luke 3:22, and 2 Corinthians 13:14 are able to distinguish between Jesus and the Holy Ghost in some way.
--
*2 Timothy 2:17 / *2 Tim. 2:17 -
The original Greek word (gangraina: G1044) translated as "canker" can refer to an "ulcer", or to "gangrene".
--
*2 Timothy 2:18 / *2 Tim. 2:18 -
(Re: Full preterism?)
See the "Countering" section of 2 Thessalonians 2:1-8 above.
--
*2 Timothy 2:20-21 / *2 Tim. 2:20 / *2 Tim. 2:21 -
This relates only to elect individuals, who were created by God to be vessels of His mercy, not to nonelect individuals, who were created by God to be vessels of His wrath (Romans 9:11-24). That is, 2 Timothy 2:20-21 means that even among elect individuals there can be honor and dishonor, depending on whether or not they obey God (1 Thessalonians 4:2-8).
(See also Romans 9:11 above)
--
*2 Timothy 2:25-26 / *2 Tim. 2:25 -
Elect sinners are able to repent once God has miraculously given them that ability (2 Timothy 2:25, Acts 11:18). But this ability does not take away their free will. So subsequent to their initial repentance, they can wrongly employ their free will to go back to committing a sin without repentance, to the ultimate loss of their salvation (Hebrews 10:26-29; 1 Corinthians 9:27, Luke 12:45-46).
(See Hebrews 10:26 below)
~
(Re: Does 2 Timothy 2:25-26 mean that God grants repentance even to nonelect individuals, for it refers to total depravity?)
No, for even elect individuals are in total depravity before they become Christians (Romans 3:9-12, Ephesians 2:2-3).
--
*2 Timothy 3:3 / *2 Tim. 3:3 -
The original Greek word (akrates: G0193) translated as "incontinent", like the English word, can mean "without self-control" (Strong's Greek Dictionary).
--
*2 Timothy 3:4 / *2 Tim. 3:4 -
The original Greek word (propetes: G4312) translated as "heady", like the English word, can mean "rash" (cf. Acts 19:36), in the sense of hasty, lacking caution.
The Greek word (tuphoo: G5187) translated as "highminded" can mean "conceited". The modern definition of the English word "high-minded" would not apply here, for it means "marked by elevated principles and feelings" (Webster's).
--
*2 Timothy 3:5 / *2 Tim. 3:5 -
Here the key phrase is: "Having a form of godliness", that is, those who claim to be Christians but live in an evil manner (2 Timothy 3:2-5). Compare 1 Corinthians 5:11, where "brother" is meant figuratively in the sense of anyone claiming to be a Christian.
2 Timothy 3:5b does not mean to turn away from non-Christians.
(See paragraph 3 of 1 Corinthians 9:1 above)
--
*2 Timothy 3:8 / *2 Tim. 3:8 -
The original Greek word (adokimos: G0096) translated as "reprobate" can mean "rejected" (Hebrews 6:8).
--
*2 Timothy 3:15 / *2 Tim. 3:15 -
The Bible is holy (2 Timothy 3:15) because it was written under the inspiration of God's Holy Spirit (2 Timothy 3:16; 2 Peter 1:21).
Holiness is the opposite of uncleanness (1 Thessalonians 4:7; 2 Corinthians 7:1).
--
*2 Timothy 3:16 / *2 Tim. 3:16 -
This by itself can never prove to anyone that the Bible is God's Word. 2 Timothy 3:16 will be believed only by those individuals who have already received God's miraculous gift of faith in Jesus Christ and His Gospel (Ephesians 2:8, John 6:65; 1 Corinthians 3:5b, Romans 12:3b, Hebrews 12:2), and have received some measure of God's Holy Spirit (1 Corinthians 2:11-16).
(See Romans 9:11 above)
~
(Re: How do we distinguish between God's wisdom and that which is unspiritual or demonic?)
By seeing how something lines up with God's Word the Bible (2 Timothy 3:16).
~
(Re: Is the Bible's *inerrancy a stupid idea, because it can be defeated by just a single error anywhere in the Bible?)
No, for the Bible's inerrancy is taught by the Bible itself (2 Timothy 3:16-17), while the idea of the Bible's errancy renders it useless. For then we can claim that any part of the Bible which we personally do not like is in error. And so we vitiate the whole purpose of the Bible, which is to be "profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works" (2 Timothy 3:16b-17). That is, if the Bible contained errors, then we could reject its doctrine, reproof, correction, and instruction in righteousness whenever we personally felt like it (2 Timothy 4:3-4), claiming that it is in error in those instances.
(See 2 Timothy 4:3 below. Also, see paragraph 3 of section 5 of Matthew 4:4 above)
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*2 Timothy 4:1 / *2 Tim. 4:1 -
(Re: Are Jesus' future appearing and His Kingdom at two different times?)
No, for in 2 Timothy 4:1 the "and" between Jesus Christ's future "appearing" and His "kingdom" is not contradicting that His physical Kingdom will be established at His future appearing (Second Coming), immediately after the future Tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24 (Matthew 24:29-31, Revelation 19:7 to 20:6, Zechariah 14:3-21). Instead, that "and" in 2 Timothy 4:1 is used in the same sense as, for example, the "and" in 2 Timothy 4:6, which did not mean that the apostle Paul's being "offered" and his "departure" would happen at two different times.
~
(Re: Judgment / Amillennialism?)
2 Timothy 4:1 can include both of the future final-judgments. For Jesus Christ will finally-judge only the Church immediately at His future appearing (Second Coming) (Psalms 50:3-5, cf. Mark 13:27, Matthew 25:19-30; 2 Corinthians 5:10, Luke 12:45-48), while non-Christians will not be finally-judged until the Great White Throne Judgment (Revelation 20:11-15). And the Great White Throne Judgment can be thought of as the third and final stage of the physical aspect of Jesus Christ's Kingdom, the first stage being His future, post-Second-Coming, 1,000-year (Millennial) reign on the earth with the physically resurrected Church (Revelation 19:7 to 20:6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29, Zechariah 14:3-21), and the second stage being after the 1,000 years, when the Gog/Magog rebellion, its defeat, and then an at-least seven-year aftermath will occur (Revelation 20:7-10, Ezekiel chapters 38-39, Ezekiel 39:9b).
--
*2 Timothy 4:2 / *2 Tim. 4:2 -
The original Greek word (ephistemi: G2186) translated as "instant" can mean "present" (Acts 28:2).
The Greek word (eukairos: G2122) translated as "in season" can mean "when it is convenient" (cf. Mark 14:11).
The Greek word (akairos: G0171) translated as "out of season" can mean "when it is not convenient".
--
*2 Timothy 4:3-4 / *2 Tim. 4:3 -
This means that in a wrong desire to continue in their lusts without repentance, Christians can reach the point where they become no longer able to endure the sound doctrine of the Bible, and instead seek out and latch onto any false teachings which will help to support them in their lusts (1 Timothy 4:1-2).
~
(Re: Does the flood of deception begin with the very thought process which says: It is up to us to choose what we want to believe?)
That brings to mind 2 Timothy 4:3-4, where the original Greek word (epithumia: G1939) translated as "lusts" can include simple "desires" (cf. Luke 22:15, Philippians 1:23), which would include doctrinal desires: That is, what we want to believe rather than what is actually the truth. Compare Ephesians 2:3, which refers to when we wrongly fulfill what our own minds want to think.
For example, some people reject the idea of the eternal suffering of non-Christians, because these people want to believe that God's character forbids it. But the truth is that the eternal suffering which God will mete out to non-Christians (Matthew 25:41,46, Revelation 20:10,15, Revelation 14:10-11, Mark 9:45-46) will not be against His character, but will express a vital part of it.
For the eternal suffering of non-Christians will not be some evil, capricious act of cruelty on God's part, but an eternal expression of that aspect of His perfect holiness/goodness which is called His righteous judgment and wrath against evil (Romans 2:5, Romans 9:22, Hebrews 12:28b-29, Revelation 14:10-11).
There is no Bible verse which requires the annihilation of non-Christians, just as there is no Bible verse which requires the ultimate salvation of everyone from hell. So there is no reason for anyone to believe in either of these things, beyond their own, personal desire to believe in them.
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*2 Timothy 4:5 / *2 Tim. 4:5 -
The original Greek word (nepho: G3525) translated as to "watch" can mean to "be sober" (1 Thessalonians 5:8).
(See also the "Watching" section of Matthew 24:36 above)
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*2 Timothy 4:8 / *2 Tim. 4:8 -
(Appearing)
See 1 John 2:28 and Titus 2:13 below.
--
*2 Timothy 4:18 / *2 Tim. 4:18 -
This does not require once-saved-always-saved, for the apostle Paul knew that even he had to continue to do the right things (and to continue to repent from any wrong actions) if he was not to be ultimately cast away by God (1 Corinthians 9:27, Philippians 3:11-14; 2 Corinthians 5:9, Romans 2:6-8; 2 Timothy 2:12).
(See the "NOSAS" section of Hebrews 3:6 below)
--
*Titus 2:11 -
(Re: A bad, non-KJV translation)
The idea of the original Greek of Titus 2:11 is: "the grace of God that brings salvation has appeared to all men".
(See paragraphs 2-4 of section 5 of John 3:16 above)
--
*Titus 2:12b -
(Re: An age of grace?)
See section 2 of Ephesians 1:21 above.
--
*Titus 2:13 -
(Appearing)
Here, Jesus Christ's glorious appearing is His future, Second Coming, when He will appear in glory (Matthew 24:30).
~
(*Blessed hope)
The blessed hope (Titus 2:13) is the hope of eternal life: "In hope of eternal life" (Titus 1:2), "that blessed hope" (Titus 2:13), "the hope of eternal life" (Titus 3:7), by which is meant the Christian hope of obtaining an immortal, physical resurrection body (Romans 8:23-25, Philippians 3:21, Luke 24:39) at Jesus Christ's future, Second Coming (1 Corinthians 15:21-23,51-53; 1 Thessalonians 4:15-16, Revelation 19:7 to 20:6), which will not occur until immediately after the future Tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24 (Matthew 24:29-31; 2 Thessalonians 2:1-8, Revelation 19:7 to 20:6). Also, Jesus Himself is the hope of Christians (1 Timothy 1:1b), for He Himself is eternal life (John 14:6), and only by believing in Him can people have eternal life (John 3:36).
(Re: A *pregnant analogy)
No Christians are hoping for the future Tribulation instead of Jesus Christ's Second Coming, even though those Christians who (rightly) hold to the post-tribulation-rapture view know that the Tribulation must come first (Matthew 24:29-31; 2 Thessalonians 2:1-8, Revelation 19:7 to 20:6; cf. 1 Peter 4:12-13). For a Christian (whether male or female) who holds to the post-tribulation-rapture view is like a pregnant woman nearing the end of her term. She is not hoping for birthing pains instead of the birth of her child, but she knows that birthing pains must come first (John 16:21-22, Isaiah 26:17-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21-23).
(See also the first entry under Job above)
~
(*Looking for)
We are to be "looking for" Jesus Christ's future appearing (Titus 2:13), His Second Coming (Matthew 24:30). But the original Greek word (prosdechomai: G4327) translated as "looking for" does not mean to stare with our eyes with the hope of seeing someone come at any moment. Instead, it means "to await (with confidence or patience)" (Strong's Greek Dictionary), like in Luke 12:36, Luke 2:25, and Mark 15:43. For Jesus cannot come back at any moment (Acts 3:21). He cannot come back until at least two events happen first (2 Thessalonians 2:1-4). For His coming back to gather together (rapture) the Church must destroy the future Antichrist (2 Thessalonians 2:1,8). That is why Jesus' coming back to gather together (rapture) the Church will not be until immediately after the future Tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24 (Matthew 24:29-31, Mark 13:24-27), and why the Church will have to go through the Tribulation (Revelation 13:7-10, Revelation 14:12-13, Matthew 24:9-13).
(See also the "Watching" section of Matthew 24:36 above. And see Acts 3:21 above)
--
*Titus 3:5 -
(Not by works)
See Ephesians 2:8 above.
--
*Titus 3:8 -
Initial salvation by grace through faith without works (Ephesians 2:8-9, Titus 3:5, Romans 4:1-5) does not automatically produce good works. That is why Christians must be careful to maintain good works (Titus 3:8), and why it is possible for Christians to wrongly employ their free will to become utterly lazy without repentance, to the ultimate loss of their salvation (Matthew 25:26,30, John 15:2a, Romans 2:6-8).
(See Matthew 25:26 and John 15:2a above)
--
*Titus 3:11 -
The original Greek word (ekstrepho: G1612) translated as "subverted", like the English word, can mean "perverted" (Strong's Greek Dictionary).
--
*Hebrews / *Heb. -
The book of Hebrews is about the Church (Hebrews 2:12, Hebrews 12:23), the body of Jesus Christ (Hebrews 13:3, cf. 1 Corinthians 12:25-27).
(See John 15:5 and Galatians 3:29 above. Also, see James 1:1 below)
--
*Hebrews 1:1 / *Heb. 1:1 -
The original Greek word (polumeros: G4181) translated as "sundry times" is made up of two words (polus: G4183, and meros: G3313) which together can mean "many places". For polus can mean "many" (Hebrews 2:10), and meros can refer to places, whether physical places (Matthew 2:22, Matthew 15:21) or points in time (1 Corinthians 14:27).
--
*Hebrews 1:2 / *Heb. 1:2 -
(*Last days)
The "last days" began in the first century AD with Jesus Christ's first coming (Hebrews 1:2) and the Holy Spirit's pouring-out at the Pentecost in Acts 2 (Acts 2:16-17). The last days can be the last three, roughly 1,000-year "days" (2 Peter 3:8, Psalms 90:4), of the seven, roughly 1,000-year "days" from the creation of Adam in roughly 4,000 BC to the future end of the present earth and the creation of the New Earth (Revelation 21:1), as in a new surface for the earth, in roughly 3,000 AD. So the last "days" can be the roughly 3,000 years from Jesus' first coming to sometime after the future Millennium (of Revelation 20:4-6), which Millennium (1,000 years) will be part of the last, 1,000-year "day" (2 Peter 3:8), which could begin at Jesus' future, Second Coming (1 Corinthians 1:7-8).
(See the "After the Second Coming" section of Revelation 20:4 below)
Also, note that Jesus Christ came in the middle of the 7,000 years. For God puts His best in the middle, just as we put a sandwich's best part in the middle.
~
(He made the worlds)
Hebrews 1:1-2 is not contradicting that the world was made by God the Word (John 1:10), who has become flesh in Jesus Christ (John 1:1,14).
--
*Hebrews 1:4 to 2:17 / *Heb. 1:4 -
(Re: Is Jesus *Michael the archangel?)
No, for Jesus Christ is not any angel, but God the Son (Hebrews 1:4 to 2:17).
(See also the "Michael" section of Daniel 12:1(space) above)
--
*Hebrews 1:10-12 / *Heb. 1:10 -
(Re: Does "heavens" here mean the universe?)
No, see the "Ouranos" section of 2 Peter 3:10 below.
--
*Hebrews 1:14b / *Heb. 1:14b -
(Re: Can aliens be heirs of salvation?)
Under Psalms 8:3 above, see paragraph 8 of section 2; and see section 9.
--
*Hebrews 2:4 / *Heb. 2:4 -
This is not contradicting that God, at the time that the book of Hebrews was written in the first century AD, just as still today, continued to bear witness to His Word by signs and wonders. Also, during the future Tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24, are some Christians going to reject God's Two Witnesses simply because their ministry will involve them performing miracles (Revelation 11:3-6)?
~
(Re: Does Hebrews 2:4 mean that Spiritual gifts were only to authenticate God's messengers and their message?)
No, for another purpose is to edify those who are already Christians (1 Corinthians 14:4-5,12-13,26-31).
(See 1 Corinthians 12:8 above)
--
*Hebrews 2:5 / *Heb. 2:5 -
(Re: Does it include aliens?)
See section 9 of Psalms 8:3 above.
--
*Hebrews 2:8c / *Heb. 2:8c -
(Re: While we do not see Jesus Christ's reign on the earth, is it not still here? Do you know what the "right hand of God" is?)
Yes, and it is in heaven (Mark 16:19; 1 Peter 3:22, Acts 7:55). Hebrews 2:8c means that we do not yet see all things on the earth put under Jesus Christ's physical rule on the earth, because they will not be until His future, Second Coming, and then during the subsequent Millennium (Zechariah 14:3-21, Revelation 19:7 to 20:6, Micah 4:1-4, Psalms 66:3-4, Psalms 72:8-11).
(See also Matthew 28:18 above)
--
*Hebrews 2:9-11 / *Heb. 2:9 -
(Every man)
See John 1:7 above.
--
*Hebrews 2:14-15 / *Heb. 2:14 / *Heb. 2:15 -
Jesus Christ can deliver obedient Christians from the fear of death (Hebrews 2:15, Hebrews 5:9). For obedient Christians can be confident that death will be no loss for them, but gain, as it will bring their still-conscious souls into heaven to be with Jesus (Philippians 1:21,23; 2 Corinthians 5:8). But disobedient Christians should fear death, for they will go to hell (cf. Luke 12:5, Matthew 10:28) if they die in unrepentant sin (1 John 5:16, Hebrews 10:26-29; 1 Corinthians 9:27).
(See Hebrews 10:26 below)
~
(Re: Means that Satan is bound?)
No, see Colossians 2:15 above.
~
(Re: Destroy / G2673 = annihilate?)
No, see section 2 of 1 Corinthians 15:26 above.
--
*Hebrews 2:16-17 / *Heb. 2:16 -
(Re: Means that there are no aliens?)
Hebrews 2:16-17 can simply mean that Jesus Christ did not take on the nature of angels to save elect humans on the earth from hell. It does not forbid Jesus from taking on the nature of aliens on other planets to save elect aliens from hell.
--
*Hebrews 3:1 / *Heb. 3:1 -
(Re: *Apostolic succession?)
Jesus Christ Himself is the highest apostle (Hebrews 3:1), and He can ordain individuals directly, without any other apostles having to be involved (Acts 26:13-20, Galatians 1:1).
Also... (See Acts 14:14 above)
Also, if the pope today were the apostolic successor of Peter, then who today would be the apostolic successors of the at least thirteen other apostles besides Peter?
Did all of the other lines of apostolic succession peter out? And if so, how could this be? How could the Church today need only one apostolic successor while the early Church needed at least fourteen apostles?
What has happened?
(See also Matthew 16:19 above)
--
*Hebrews 3:6,12,14 / *Heb. 3:6 -
This shows that Christians have to continue believing in Jesus Christ and His Gospel to the end if they are to be ultimately saved from hell. And they can wrongly employ their free will to depart from this belief and the living God (1 Timothy 4:1, Colossians 1:23, Luke 8:13) to the ultimate loss of their salvation (Hebrews 6:4-8).
(See Hebrews 6:4 below)
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