Jason,
Never does.
Not even in your example of Jude. Double dead is physically dead, and spiritually dead. Those are people that will suffer a physical death as well as the spiritual death. This is made clear in vs 15 who we are talking about.
No. They are not just sinners in general. They professing believers who have slipped in among us. Verse 12 itself that mentions how they are twice dead says "
these are spots in your love feasts, when they feast with you." In other words, they are defiled members in your weekly fellowship in celebrating the Lord's supper. For they feed themselves in the Lord's supper without fear. The Eternal Security Proponent today tells me that the word "
fear" in regards to the "fear of the Lord" does not really mean "
fear" despite what Philippians 2:12 says. These spots who feed themselves among us are also described as trees whose fruit that withers, too. Now, the picture here is that they once had fruit but then it later withers and dies. So these individuals were once fruitful for the Lord, but then they later became unfruitful. Here is verse 12 again,
"These are spots in your love feasts, when they feast with you, feeding themselves without fear: clouds they are without water, carried about by winds; trees whose fruit withers, without fruit, twice dead, plucked up by the roots;" (Jude 1:12).
Also, these individuals are plucked up by the roots. This is an allusion to the Parable of the Sower. They that did not have root in God's Word and therefore they fell away for different sinful reasons. This is why David essentially said he hid God's Word within his heart so that he may not sin against Him (Psalms 119:11). Anyways, those who endured for a short time were saved initially because they received the seed of the Word of God with joy (i.e. they believed the gospel message) whereas the person whose seed was cast by the way side could not even receive the seed of the Word of God in their heart because the devil stole it out of their heart before it could be sown within their heart. In other words, this is the unbeliever and the rest of those in the parable are believers (with two of them falling away from the faith and becoming unsaved again). They are plucked up by the roots. Twice dead (dead once before they came to Christ and dead again by allowing sin to take hold in their life again).
BrotherJerry said:
This matches up with what is spoken of quite a bit in the Bible...A physical birth, a physical death. A spritual birth, a spiritual death. However, one can never experience the spiritual birth (being reborn), and only suffer the second death.
Revelations 2:11 "....He who overcomes will not be hurt by the second death"
Sorry, Revelation 2:11 does not in any way support the false theological teaching that ALL those who had a second birth will endure or overcome in their faith until the end. On the contrary, it refutes what you actually believe. The verse says he that OVERCOMES will not be hurt by the second death (i.e. the Lake of Fire). OVERCOMES is an action on your part. However, no doubt you believe 1 John 5:4 teaches that all who overcome are those who are born of God. Here is the verse,
"For whatsoever is born of God overcometh the world: and this is the victory that overcometh the world,
even our faith" (1 John 5:4).
So does this verse teach that ALL who are born of God overcome he world? Well, we know that the word "whatsoever" is used elsewhere in Scripture as
not to refer to ANYTHING or ALL THINGS.
For Scripture says,
"And
whatsoever ye shall ask in my name, that will I do, that the Father may be glorified in the Son." (John 14:13).
Surely, we (or the disciples of Christ) cannot ask for ANYTHING we want and then expect to receive that thing just because we asked for it in the name of Jesus. It doesn't work like that. The "whatsoever" is in context to only things that promotes the goodness of God and His will and plan. However, if you think John 14:13 is not talking to you but it is talking excusively to the disciples and you are determined that "whatsoever" always means all in every case, then you must also conclude that is what it says in Revelation 21, too.
Let's go ahead and read that.
10 "And he carried me away in the spirit to a great and high mountain, and shewed me that great city, the holy Jerusalem, descending out of heaven from God,
27 And there shall in no wise enter into it any thing that defileth, neither
whatsoever worketh abomination, or
maketh a lie: but they which are written in the Lamb's book of life." (Revelation 21:10, Revelation 21:27).
Did you catch that?
Whatseover works or makes a lie will not be able to enter the city of Jerusalem. In other words, a believer who lies (because they erroneously think all their future sin paid for) will not be able to enter God's holy city on the Eternal New Earth. In fact, they won't even be on the New Earth. The destiny of all liars is the Lake of Fire (Revelation 21:8) and not God's Kingdom.
BrotherJerry said:
Revelations 20:6 "Blessed and holy is the one who has a part in the first resurrection; over these the second death has no power"
The first resurrection is talking about the bodily resurrection and not the new birth. The context show us this fact.
4 "And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and who had not worshiped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.
5 But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection."
(Revelation 20:4-5).
BrotherJerry said:
Revelations 21:8 "...and sorcerers and idolataters and all liars, their part will be in the lake that burns with the fire and brimstone, which is the second death"
This verse refutes what you believe. The verse says ALL liars will have their part in the lake of fire. This means you cannot die in the unrepentant sin of lying. Proverbs 28:13 says he that confesses and forsakes sin shall have mercy. This is confirmed by 1 John 1:9, 1 John 1:7 and Matthew 12:41 and Jonah 3:6-10.
BrotherJerry said:
You cannot say there is more than two deaths unless in Revelations "second" is just a place holder and it really meant "third" or "fourth" or "one thousand six hundred and eighty second".
No. Those who are twice dead and plucked up by the roots does not mean that these individuals have faced the Second Death yet. The Second Death is something that is yet future. They are twice dead and plucked up by the roots in the present tense. You are suggesting that it is a future tense word when verse 12 makes it clear that they are believers who have fallen away from the faith because it says they once had fruit and then they later became fruitless.
BrotherJerry said:
The Prodigal son, if you desire to apply the son coming back as the message of salvation then keep in mind the son was spirtually dead before he left. Unless you are going to say we are born with the inheritance. The Bible gives a different picture of people. It paints a picture that we are all born spiritually dead. We are born in the image of Adam.
All babies who die in this life go to be with the Lord. This lines up nicely with the picture of the Parable of the Prodigal Son. We were once in favor with God as a baby and then we squandered our inheritance by our sinful living and we admitted our sin before Heaven and before the Father in returning back home to Him (Thru Jesus Christ).
BrotherJerry said:
If the older brother represents Israel, then the prodigal must represent some other nation. It is the parable of the Prodigal son that people more often butcher interpretive standards. No other parable gets treated this way. Typically most people ignore half of this parable and only focus on the Prodigal. But you simply cannot ignore him. And treating one as the nation of Israel and the other as a picture of an individuals salvation is also really a corrupted process as well. That would be like saying the parable of the talents, one of the slaves represents Israel, another is Peter, and one was a picture of salvation. This sort of interpretation is just making the BIble say whatever you want. When looking at parables all of the pieces have to fit together otherwise they have no meaning.
No. The Bible itself says many times that there are two entities (Israel and the Gentiles). This is how the Bible speaks. To ignore it is to ignore the Bible. Romans 11:11 says,
"I say then, Have they stumbled that they should fall? God forbid: but
rather through their fall salvation
is come unto the Gentiles, for to provoke them to jealousy." (Romans 11:11).
This is exactly what we see happen in the Parable. The son returns; For Adam was not an Israelite. Adam was a representation of all the nations (Gentiles). So when the son (Gentile nations) returned, they provoked jealousy within Israel. This is what happens in the Parable. The brother gets jealous when the son returns home.
BrotherJerry said:
Your quoting Ezekiel...keep in mind OT righteousness is different than in the NT when it comes to the believer.
Surely if Ezekiel said something that lines up with your belief, you would quote it, no?
In other words, you are only ignoring what he said here because it does not line up with your belief system.
What Ezekiel says in Ezekiel 18:24 still stands as a true today.
God does not change in regards to common basic morality.
Besides, the New Testament also confirms this truth, as well.
20 "For if after they have escaped the defilements of the world through the knowledge of the Lord and Savior Jesus Christ, they are again entangled therein, and overcome, the latter end is worse with them than the beginning.
21 For it had been better for them not to have known the way of righteousness, than, after they have known it, to turn from the holy commandment delivered unto them.
22 But it is happened unto them according to the true proverb, The dog has turned to his own vomit again; and the sow that was washed to her wallowing in the mire." (2 Peter 2:20-22).
BrotherJerry said:
Romans 6:18 says that we "having been freed from sin, you became slaves of righteousness" - A slave cannot walk away.
Jesus says if you sin you are a slave to sin (John 8:34). Paul says you yield yourselves to whatever servant you obey, whether of sin unto death, or of obedience unto righteousness (Romans 6:16).
BrotherJerry said:
Romans 9:31 says that Israel pursued the law of righteousness but never got there.
But the disciples were Israelites and they surely found favor with the Messiah. What makes them different? Did God just choose people at random? Do you not know that Jesus had a problem with the Iraelites in not keeping the Law? Did Jesus ever say that their problem was in keeping the Law? No. That wasn't the problem. Granted, the New Covenant believer today does not follow the Old Covenant Law or Laws anymore. They follow the Commands given to them in the New Covenant (or New Testament). For the Old Law was fulfilled when Christ died upon the cross. This is obvious by the fact that the Temple veil was torn from top to bottom in the Jewish temple.
BrotherJerry said:
Romans 10:3-4 "For not knowing about God's rightousness and seeking to establish their own, they did not subject themselves to the righteousness of God.
Yes, exactly. The Jews did not submit to the actual laws of God under the Old Covenant and they went out and created their own traditions and laws in addition to the Law of Moses (See Matthew 15:3).
BrotherJerry said:
For Christ is the end of hte law of righteousness to everyone who believes" We are no longer bound to the law of righteousness spoken of in Ezekiel. Christ was the end of that law.
Ezekiel speaks of spiritual truth that has remained the same in the New Testament. If that was not the case, then God would be a respecter of persons (Treating some individuals differently on a righteous level than others). Such a thing would not be fair and just. Yes, Christ is the end of the Law of Moses, but Christ is not the end of the Law of Christ (Galatians 6:2), the Law of the Spirit of Life in Christ Jesus (Romans 8:2), the Royal Law (James 2:8) or the Law of Liberty (James 1:25). Christ is not the end of the Laws or Commands in the New Covenant. If that was the case, then the Command to believe on Jesus Christ (1 John 3:23) would also be null and void, too.
BrotherJerry said:
1 Corinthians 1:30 "But by His doing you are in Christ Jesus, who became to us wisdom from God, and righteousness and sanctification, and redemption." Christ became our righteousness.
There are many verses that explain that before the Father, our righteousness is Christ. Our faith is accounted as our righteousness before judgement, not our deeds.
I believe in the Substitionary Atonement. But I believe the Substitionary Atonement only works if you have the right kind of faith. For the Bible says, faith without works is dead (James 2:17). How can a dead faith access the saving grace of God (Which is a gift)? The short answer is that it can't.
BrotherJerry said:
No extreme whatsoever. It is simply what the Bible says "drink of the water I give and you will never thirst" It is very simple.
Yes, you are taking this verse out of context just as someone who might take the word "all" out of context in a passage that is not referring to "all" people in existence when it is referring to only "all" those people in the surrounding area. Scripture has to be compared with other Scripture to get the proper understanding.
BrotherJerry said:
No one is saying that people become perfect. We are human we fail all the time.
Jesus says be ye perfect as the Heavenly Father is perfect.
The Father is perfect because he is holy and sinless.
God also says in His Word, "Be ye holy as I am holy."
Is Jesus and God's Word lying? No, of course not.
BrotherJerry said:
What Christ talked about was not us abiding in Him. You seem to ignore that Christ abides in US as well.
No, John 14:23 says,
"Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man loves me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him."
And 1 John 2:3-6 says,
3 "And hereby we do know that we know him, if we keep his commandments.
4 He that saith, I know him, and keepeth not his commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him.
5 But whoso keepeth his word, in him verily is the love of God perfected: hereby know we that we are in him.
6 He that saith he abideth in him ought himself also so to walk, even as he walked."
BrotherJerry said:
John 6:56 "He who eats My flesh and drinks my blood abides in Me, and I in him"
You have no idea what the eating of Christ's flesh even means. It means to do the will of the Father.
"Jesus saith unto them, My meat is to do the will of him that sent me, and to finish his work." (John 4:34).
As for the blood: You think it is just automatically applied to you with having a belief on Jesus alone. But the Bible says,
"But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship one with another, and the blood of Jesus Christ his Son cleanseth us from all sin." (1 John 1:7).
BrotherJerry said:
You said "Jesus is merely talking about never thirsting again if one drinks of this type of water."...exactly...If one drinks of the water that He is giving then one will never thirst again. That is what the Bible says. He sure was not talking about the water from that well that he asked the woman to give Him.
In Jude, there are professing believers among us who are said to be "clouds without water." They are "Trees whose fruit withers."
Jesus tells us to abide in Him and His Words (John 15:7). This does not suggest that Christ is the One who will take control of abiding in you regardless of what you do.
In other words, a person will never thirst for the type of water Christ gives to them as long as they abide in Christ and His words. it is not like the physical water that we keep needing to take because we can continually abide in Christ and His words all the time. This is not the case with water. We cannot continually drink water 24/7 or we would get water poisoning. Besides, why would Christ give the water of life to someone who does not want to abide in Christ and His Words anymore? Is your free will eliminated after coming to Christ? Does Christ keep a person captive against their free will?
BrotherJerry said:
And pretty much everything else you cited...agree. Granted most of it had nothing to do with salvation. You seem to confuse salvation with sanctification. Two completely different things, while related they are not the same.
No. That is not true. Jesus says in Matthew 7:21 that not everyone who says unto Him, Lord, Lord will enter the Kingdom of Heaven but he that does the will of the Father. The Bible says the will of the Father or the will of God is our Sanctification or holiness (1 Thessalonians 4:3); And Hebrews 12:14 says, without holiness no man shall see the Lord.
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