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I've never met one who thinks that though. Have you?![]()
It is pretty well essential to Islam to regard the Koran as equal in status and authority with God himself. Therefore, I have never yet met a Moslem - other than those who are not really interested in their faith - who does not do so.
Why do you suppose that unbelievers are not allowed to touch the Koran, for example? If the Koran were only a spoken word, then by definition it could not be touched, and this injunction would be meaningless.
We seem to be straying quite a long way from Zeus; maybe this is better discussed in a new thread somewhere.
Ha ha... true that we're pretty off topic.
As for the other point though, I believe it stems from your misunderstanding of how a Muslim views the Qur'an. If you were to read any book on our faith that discusses this issue, you will find that what I am saying is true. No Muslim, to my knowledge, believes that the physical books are God incarnate. The injunction is not meaningless. It is out of respect for the perfect message and guidance which we believe it contains.
Who believes in mythological religions? Worshiping the bible which talks about talking snakes, Giants, burning bushes, and 7 headed beasts is the equivalent of believing in centaurs, hydras, nymphs, and Minotaurs. Prove me wrong.
1. The authorship of the so-called "pastoral epistles" is contested, and for a good reason: looking at the style and content of these letters with a scholar's eye, it is highly unlikely that they were written by the same person as the authentic Pauline epistles.2 Tim 3:15-17
15 and that from childhood you have known the Holy Scriptures, which are able to make you wise for salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus. 16 All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness, 17 that the man of God may be complete, thoroughly equipped for every good work.
1. The authorship of the so-called "pastoral epistles" is contested, and for a good reason: looking at the style and content of these letters with a scholar's eye, it is highly unlikely that they were written by the same person as the authentic Pauline epistles.
2. Even if we ignore the whole issue of authorship, and assume that it *was* Paul who wrote these verses: there was no Bible at this point in history, especially as far as the "New Testament" was concerned. The only "Holy Scriptures" that were known to people from their childhood back then were the Jewish scriptures - NOT the Pauline epistles, NOT the gospels, NOT revelation, in short: NOT the biblical canon that you are familiar with today.
3. "Inspiration" does not necessarily imply the same level of divine involvement as in the Qur'anic tradition of words being handed down verbatim to a mere mortal vessel.
4. The verses in question can be (should be?) translated differently: ""Every inspired scripture is also useful...[and so on and so forth]"
Indeed, and I have made this point known to many Christians as well.
I suppose my intention in stating this verse is for those among us who claim the absolute authority of another text (Koran). Christians have strong consolation that the OT scriptures are reliable for us, and uncorrupted, contrary to what Muhammed stated hundreds of years later.
Divine inspiration does not necessarily amount to direct authorship in the sense of God basically handing out a ready-made book to a mortal agent, whose only task is then to write it down word for word as he is told.Please elaborate?
Who believes in mythological religions? Worshiping the bible which talks about talking snakes, Giants, burning bushes, and 7 headed beasts is the equivalent of believing in centaurs, hydras, nymphs, and Minotaurs. Prove me wrong.
Y'know, with regards to the OT (Torah), I think there may actually be a difference of opinion among Muslim scholars whether the 'tahreef' (change) was in the actual words or only in its interpretation. I feel like I heard that Ibn Taymiyyah was of the opinion that only the intended meaning rather than the actual Hebrew text was corrupted. God knows best. I'm not sure, but it's something one could look into.
From what I've heard from muslims on this forum, they seem to believe that Paul was essentially an impostor who infiltrated Christianity and turned it into something other than strict monotheism; the rest of the NT reflects Paul's influence to varying degrees, but none of it is completely free of it.Would this apply to the NT scriptures about Jesus as well?
Would this apply to the NT scriptures about Jesus as well?
The books of the NT were written in Greek.The only thing that makes me ASSUME that it would not apply to the NT is that, to my understanding, there are no Aramaic manuscripts available?
The books of the NT were written in Greek.
From what I've heard, and I maybe wrong, the NT CONTAINS Gospel translated, but also the words of scholars.