Then why do you seem to have all the answers pertaining to Genesis 1?
Did I imply that I had all the answers pertaining to Genesis 1? If so, please show me where so that I can quickly repent and correct the disservice I'm doing to my Lord.
You profess to have no authority to explore such pertinent and important issues as the sacramental presence of Jesus in worship (Holy Communion) or the relevance of baptism, and yet origins theology is open-and-shut, "evolutionism contradicts the Word of God" simplicity?
I have all the authority to explore the issues you raised. If I gave you the impression that I didn't, I apologize. Given that this is the Origins forum I thought the discussions were to be centered around that theme and not others.
If even in pivotal issues like the Eucharist and baptism the Bible gives different opinions to different people, what gives you the authority to decide that there can only be one correct interpretation of such an obscure issue as the historicity as Genesis 1, and that this authentically Scriptural view is YECism?
Yes I believe there is only one correct interpretation of Genesis 1 and the Eucharist, baptism etc., it would appear that you don't. I'm free to disagree and state my opinion why, as well as you. I don't have or claim to have the authority to speak for you or anyone else concerning these matters. What I do have is the authority to speak about what the Holy Spirit and God's Word has impressed upon and convicted my heart on. Now if you or others wish to interpret Scripture contrary to the way I do that is your right and perogative. I in no way wish to silence your voice. God's Word stands firmly on it's own, nothing I or you can say will dilute or corrupt it. I believe when God's Word and His Spirit convicts you of what He is impressing upon your heart that one shouldn't shy away from such conviction, but rather voice it loudly. Does that mean I'm always right, no, but until either the Holy Spirit or God's Word show me to be wrong I will continue to boldly and confidently express my beliefs. I'm certainly not here to exercise any authority other than that which has been given to me by my Lord Jesus Christ.
BTW, I am intrigued that you consider the historicity of Genesis 1 as an obscure issue.
This is entirely arbitrary, a view that dilutes much of what Scripture has to say regarding the significance of the Eucharist.
I'm sorry if I in any way diluted or minimized such an important message. The question was asked and I probably shouldn't have attempted to answer it unless I was prepared to give a complete answer; in hindsight I now see I did more of a disservice by responding. If you and others found my response to be inappropriate and insufficient, please forgive my lack of respect, I promise to do better next time.
For example, why does Jesus say that this is His body and blood? If it was just a symbol or a sign, why didn't He just say so? Why did He furthermore say in John that nobody would be saved unless they ate His body and blood?
What about Paul's Eucharist passages, the one you quoted is in the midst of a severe injunction to eat the Lord's Supper properly. But if it is merely a symbol why would there be such severe condemnation awaiting those who do not take it properly? Doesn't it make far more sense that those who improperly eat it have somehow transgressed against a Jesus very real and present in the elements?
If your position was truly Scriptural where do the early church fathers not speak of it? Symbol-only interpretation effectively began with Zwingli (AFAIK), a 16th-century Reformationist, so are you saying that for 15 centuries when Christians thought that Jesus was actually present in some way in the bread and wine they were mistaken? Why didn't the Holy Spirit tell them any earlier?
Given the inadequacy of my previous response, I choose to abstain and not comment because I'm not prepared to give an answer that would be sufficient or appropriate to the question of this thread. This time I'll be smarter and let that one go.

I'll leave it to you to provide the more eloquent and learned response. My intention in responding to this question certainly wasn't to provide a complete and definitive answer to such a profound question.
The point I (and others) are making is that if Scripture gives no monolithic, universally-agreed interpretation over such a central issue as the "queen of all sacraments" (in Roman Catholicism), why do you expect it to give a universally-agreed interpretation of Genesis 1? If Scripture cannot discriminate between Christians arguing over such a central issue, who are you to say that it can discriminate between Christians disagreed over such peripheral issues as the age of the earth and the biological origin of man?
I personally believe Scripture, through the Holy Spirit, can discriminate between the many interpretations of man and filter out those that are incorrect. If we all agree that there isn't a single correct interpretation, which seems to be the present mindset, then we'll each have our own independent one that conforms to our own feelings and situations. What we will then have done is create a god of our own choosing, one that says and does what we want him to do.