If Genesis 1 spells out six phases for us, and tells us which events are within each phase, and each phase is ordered numerically, they must be in that order. If Genesis 2 would mean to say God created plants after man, it would be a glaring contradiction and cause the bible to be fallible and not trustworthy from the very first book of it. And since Genesis 1 is the very first chapter, it sets a reference for the following chapters. Each consecutive chapter must agree with the previous chapters.
Really? Why must this be the case when we know the biblical manuscripts were not assembled into their current order until long after they were written and many parts were written without there being any intention that they be correlated with what now precedes them. Genesis 2 is a case in point as most scholars agree that it was originally written before Genesis 1 was. So there is no reason it had to agree with it.
It seems to me that you are pulling hermeneutical rules out of thin air.
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