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Sorry, that's goobledeegook. What does the verse actually mean? How come it's always been translated incorrectly?
That what the Greek text means my friend. How come it gets translated as it does? It's because of translator bias. Translators translate based on how they understand the Scriptures. Why do you think Almost every English translation uses "called" in Romans 8:29 when "invited" is just as valid a translation? It's probably because most of the original English translations were Reformed and the idea of using the word "invited" in that passage would be anathema to a Calvinist.
However, a literal translation of Jesus words has it as I stated. Here is how Young's Literal translation has it.
YLT Matthew 24:36 'And concerning that day and the hour no one hath known -- not even the messengers of the heavens -- except my Father only; (Mat 24:36 YLT)
"Hath known" is the proper way to translate "Oiden" in the perfect tense.
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