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Wow. Talk about distortion of Scripture.

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praying

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kdet said:
If rape had NOTHING to do with sexual desire then there would be no sex act. just a beating.


Sexual arousal does not in anyway equal sexual desire, it can but not in those circumstances. People can become physically aroused without having any sense or feeling of deisre for the person. It is merely an outlet for the enegry of the power and control the man has over you at the moment. The rape is a way letting you know you are completely powerless.
 
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GenemZ

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AngelusSax said:
As well as not wearing blended clothing and eating certain foods... why doesn't God ever burn anyone to a cinder for wearing a poly/cotton blend while eating shrimp?

The term, "abomination" will not be seen in the passages concerning eating shrimp, nor wearing permanent press clothes.

I heard a prominent rabbi exegete the Hebrew word translated "abomination." He said, that it refers to something that God sees as the lowest, vilest, most despicable type of thing a man can do.

God puts a special value judgement with a big asterisk next to the homosexual act. No one was to be executed for eating shrimp or for wearing a VanHousen shirt. But! A man laying with another man? As a man lays with woman? ..... They were to be executed under the Mosaic law. Killed. God did not want this sort of behavior existing in his kingdom.

Leviticus 20:13 (New King James Version)
"If a man lies with a male as he lies with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination. They shall surely be put to death. Their blood shall be upon them."

It amazes me how plainly it is spoken, yet someone out there will always try to spin this away.

Here... Let me help.

Now if a man tells a falsehood to another man? Like a man tells a falsehood to a woman? That's an abomination. In other words. If a gay man cheats and lies to his lover, like men do when they cheat on their wives? Its an abomination..... (see how spin works?)

They spin the Hebrew just like I did with the English. Spin, spin, spin.....

Grace and peace, GeneZ
 
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GenemZ

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Gang rape and abuse of Lot's daughters would have been sex? Not, control, humiliation, and punishment?

Abuse, is abuse. They simply preferred the males. (It must have been their after shave. It smelled "heavenly.") GeneZ
 
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Joykins

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Any place where roving gangs of toughs barge into private households to demand that guests be produced for their sexual satisfaction without any expectation of resistance, and to whom rape is apparently neither a concept or a crime, has a lot of really deep problems, very few if any of which have anything to do with homosexual orientation as understood or relationships as practiced in the 21st century.
 
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GenemZ

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They would not be allowed to have full expression of their lusts because of how our cultures are in the 21st century. Too much social conditioning to allow for that. Much moral breakdown will take place when the AntiChrist has his way. There will be no restraint. The Church (with the indwelling Holy Spirit) will be gone!

2 Thessalonians 2:3-4
"Don't let anyone deceive you in any way, for (that day will not come) until the departure occurs (church removed) and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the man doomed to destruction. He will oppose and will exalt himself over everything that is called God or is worshiped, so that he sets himself up in God's temple, proclaiming himself to be God."

He can not come until the God's restraint on earth (the faithful church) is taken out of the way.

2 Thessalonians 2:6-7 niv
"And you know what restrains him now (Holy Spirit indwelling believers), so that in his time he will be revealed. For the mystery of lawlessness is already at work; only he who now restrains will do so until he is taken out of the way (the Rapture)."

When the AntiChrist comes, men will be evil like in the days of Noah. There will be no restraint. The AntiChrist is lawless. The only law will be his desire.

Their flood (destruction) will be the Lord's returning...

In Christ, GeneZ
 
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NPH

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genez said:
The term, "abomination" will not be seen in the passages concerning eating shrimp, nor wearing permanent press clothes.

Leviticus 11:9-12


"These shall ye eat of all that are in the waters: whatsoever hath fins and scales in the waters, in the seas, and in the rivers, them shall ye eat.
And all that have not fins and scales in the seas, and in the rivers, of all that move in the waters, and of any living thing which is in the waters, they shall be an abomination unto you:
They shall be even an abomination unto you; ye shall not eat of their flesh, but ye shall have their carcases in abomination.
Whatsoever hath no fins nor scales in the waters, that shall be an abomination unto you."


Yeah, I see no mention at all of "abomination" in the passages concerning eating shrimp.
 
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Kgreg

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This is just another doctrine of making the Scriptures say what they want Them to say, rather than acknowledging the truth of God's Word.
 
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NPH

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I am going to copy/paste a post from another thread. I think it dealt quite well with some of what is being discussed here (particularly in regards to what the sin of Sodom was)

[/font]
 
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Rmered

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genez said:
Gang rape and abuse of Lot's daughters would have been sex? Not, control, humiliation, and punishment?

Abuse, is abuse. They simply preferred the males. (It must have been their after shave. It smelled "heavenly.") GeneZ
I think you and I probably agree on that, however, the particular aspect I was addressing was in regard to whether rape is just forced sex.

It is much worse. It also humiliates, controls and punishes.

And whilst these men may have simply been used to having sex with men, forcing Lot's guests to have sex would have a greater impact on those who are raped than 'just having sex'.

Either way, there is nothing in the original intent of this thread that justifies homosexuality in any way, from a Biblical perspective, and we can go off on as many tangents as we like, but that's the bottom line.
 
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fragmentsofdreams

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genez said:
Gang rape and abuse of Lot's daughters would have been sex? Not, control, humiliation, and punishment?

Abuse, is abuse. They simply preferred the males. (It must have been their after shave. It smelled "heavenly.") GeneZ

Or, they didn't want to abuse the children of a resident. They wanted to express dominance over foreigners. Abusing Lot's daughters wouldn't do that.
 
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indra_fanatic

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No, I would not say that. I do not get Lot off the hook either, but in truth I think his offer was made out of patriarchal ignorance, not genuine hatred of women.

Sodom and Gomorrah had a lot of bad things going for (or rather against) them. They are remembered more clearly than the other barbarous cultures of the day, though, because of the unique nature of one of their national pasttimes. Thus, even though Sodom was not just condemned for its homosexuality, condemnation for its sexual offenses was one big reason for its destruction.
 
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fragmentsofdreams

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Check the Hebrew:

http://bible.crosswalk.com/Lexicons/Hebrew/heb.cgi?number=08441&version=kjv

Different words.
 
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NPH

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fragmentsofdreams said:

Thanks frag. But then, why did the translators use the same word in English if it were different words in Hebrew? Particularly since I don't speak Hebrew Looking further it shows that word (Tow'ebah) as meaning 'disgusting' (in a ritual sense or wickedness. which one in the case of Leviticus though?) and the word in the shellfish section (shaqata) to have a meaning of 'count filthy' or 'to detest'. Pretty similar meanings.

In fact, the Hebrew word used for 'male with male sex' leaves itself open to meaning in regards to rituals, but the word used for shellfish is solely used for something filthy or detestable. It would seem that "shaqats" is a more narrowly defined word and would have been more appropriate than "tow'ebah" for the meaning most people use to describe the 'male with male' verses.
 
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GenemZ

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Not the same Hebrew word.

Your translator decided to blurr the distinctions. They are used differently.

Homosexuality = 8441 tow`ebah to-ay-baw' or tonebah {to-ay-baw'}; feminine active participle of 8581; properly, something disgusting (morally), i.e. (as noun) an abhorrence; especially idolatry or (concretely) an idol:-- abominable (custom, thing), abomination. (Lev 18:22)

Shrimp, etc = 8263 sheqets sheh'-kets from 8262; filth, i.e. (figuratively and specifically) an idolatrous object:--abominable(-tion).


NIV9 " 'Of all the creatures living in the water of the seas and the streams, you may eat any that have fins and scales. 10 But all creatures in the seas or streams that do not have fins and scales—whether among all the swarming things or among all the other living creatures in the water—you are to detest. 11 And since you are to detest them, you must not eat their meat and you must detest their carcasses. 12 Anything living in the water that does not have fins and scales is to be detestable to you.

NASB 9'These you may eat, whatever is in the water: all that have fins and scales, those in the water, in the seas or in the rivers, you may eat.
10'But whatever is in the seas and in the rivers that does not have fins and scales among all the teeming life of the water, and among all the living creatures that are in the water, they are detestable things to you, 11and they shall be abhorrent to you; you may not eat of their flesh, and their carcasses you shall detest. 12'Whatever in the water does not have fins and scales is abhorrent to you. "


One, meant that Jews were to learn to the detest certain foods.

Yet, God states he is the one who personally sees homosexuality as an abomination.

Today we can eat shrimp. That part of the law was abolished. Yet, God does not change his mind about sin. He still sees adultery as sin. As well as bestiality. We can eat shrimp today. But, can you have relations with an animal? If you are to give homosexuality a clean sheet, you'll have to throw in also bestiality. Would you?

Would you?

Grace and great wonderment..... GeneZ
 
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fragmentsofdreams

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The use of tow'ebah is interesting, considering its association with idolatry. It is also interesting how Leviticus doesn't mention male temple prostitution while Deuteronomy repeats every capital crime in Leviticus except Lev 20:13 but does prohibit male temple prostitution.
 
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NPH

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Ah, and how interesting. Another reference to the Hebrew words and again it even says "especially idolatry" and yet no one even seems to consider that part of it.

Where was 'that part of the law abolished'? So only the part that contains 'male with male' was kept? So then anyone who curses their parent should be put to death, anyone that commits adultery should be put to death, anyone that has sex with a menstruating woman should be exiled? Or was it just that one particular verse kept and the entire rest of Leviticus was 'abolished'? (oh, except bestiality since you agree to keep that one also)

How convienient that the part that was 'abolished' were all the inconvienient parts but those that were kept are the easy ones, the ones that justify certain prejudices.

He still sees adultery as a sin, eh? Then I ask this of you (since you were asking me about bestiality) ... This coming Sunday will you, genez, walk into your Church and demand that every single person who has divorced and remarried beg God's forgiveness and leave their new spouse because they are adulterous and living in sin? Will you or have you done that?

No, i'm sure you haven't and wouldn't (though hey, you might have! Who am I to know ). This is what I mean, it's convienient to make excuses for divorce (and consequently adultery) in spite of the fact that Jesus himself told us we cannot divorce!

Sad how the things Jesus told us not to do we can rationalize away but the things He didn't mention we hold to as if they were matters of life and death. Bleh, I've said enough.
 
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NPH

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Hmm, I did not know that in regards to Deuteronomy. Thanks for something new and interesting (again!) frag I've never been a big fan of those early books of the OT, seems I might have to do some reading soon.
 
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fragmentsofdreams

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VNVnation said:
Hmm, I did not know that in regards to Deuteronomy. Thanks for something new and interesting (again!) frag I've never been a big fan of those early books of the OT, seems I might have to do some reading soon.

I've been here three and a half years. You can pick up a lot of insights in that time.
 
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ebia

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Wrong. The word translated abomination is used in almost every instance to refer to ritual sins. The most reasonable presumption is therefore that Ezekiel is refering to sins in general, or ritual sins specifically, with that word.

http://www.sacrednamebible.com/kjvstrongs/STRHEB84.htm#S8441
 
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ebia

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A more reasonable distinction of the words is that the word tow`ebah is only ever used for ritual sins, and therefore what is being refered to in Lev 18:13 is a ritual sin, where as eating shellfish is a non-ritual sin.


Today we can eat shrimp. That part of the law was abolished.
Where is your evidence that some parts of the law have been abolished and not others.



That simply does not follow. Just because something is no longer prohibited by Leviticus, it does not follow that it is necessarily ok.
 
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