SU: from blueletterbible 1) accursed, execrable, exposed to divine vengeance, lying under God's curse
It's not a humiliating death only. Curse is divine vengeance, hellfire if you will.
The term curse is not used to refer to hellfire, but rather human afflictions. You have to go back to the Old Testament texts to see this: "if a man has committed a crime punishable by death and he is put to death" This refers to public execution and exposure.
IOW, the person is dead. And hung upon a tree already dead. He is cursed. Christ on the cross is already dead in a sense; why hast thou forsaken me?
If the person is dead when they're hung, then how does it even make sense to say an already dead person is suffering God's wrath? How is Christ "already dead"?
Surely he took up our pain and bore our suffering, yet we considered him punished by God, stricken by him, and afflicted. But he was pierced for our transgressions, he was crushed for our iniquities; the punishment that brought us peace was on him, and by his wounds we are healed.
Isaiah 53:4-5
Question One- Is this a prophecy about Jesus?
Question Two- If yes, what was the punishment that brought us peace which was on him?
Question One, yes, it's a prophecy of Jesus:
Matthew 8: 16 That evening they brought to him many who were oppressed by demons, and he cast out the spirits with a word and healed all who were sick. 17 This was to fulfill what was spoken by the prophet Isaiah: He took our illnesses and bore our diseases.
So this had nothing to do with Jesus suffering the Father's wrath.
Question two, the term translated "punishment" in v5 is a bad translation by the NIV. All good translations properly translate the Hebrew word here as "Chastise." The notion of Chastisement is something that all Christians undergo as a form of Fatherly correction, it's not something that a judge imposes the death penalty on. (See how the Hebrew term Chastise is used throughout the OT and NT).
Yet it pleased the Lord to bruise Him;
He has put Him to grief.
When You make His soul an offering for sin,
He shall see His seed, He shall prolong His days,
And the pleasure of the Lord shall prosper in His hand.
Isaiah 53:10
1. Who did it please the LORD to bruise?
2. Did He put Him to grief?
3. Was His soul made an offering for sin?
I addressed this earlier. The meaning is that the Father sent Jesus to suffer and die, and this suffering and death would act as an offering for sin.
Blind post.
1 John 2:2.
God's wrath was satisfied.
Three things to remember.
1. Sin is an offense against God and is punishable.
2. Not everyone is punished for their sin.
3. The reason is the cross.
The term propitiation in 1 Jn 2:2 refers to appeasing or turning away wrath. If a dad's wrath on his children is appeased or turned away, it does not mean the dad went and beat his wife with the punishment the children deserved. Rather, it means something was done so the wrath subsided and nobody was punished. If you go back to the first post there is a link explaining how the Biblical term Atonement is used in Scripture. It refers to someone doing a good work that offsets the damage that sin caused (e.g. Proverbs 16:6 says "through love and faithfulness sin is atoned for.")
Penal Substitution arose within the Reformed tradition.
It's probably debatable to what extent the Lutheran Confessions espouse Penal Substitution, it would seem there are arguments on both sides. That said, it's safe to say that it is primarily, and historically, from the Reformed camp.
The Confessions do espouse Satisfaction, but again, whether or not that Satisfaction is placed within the context of Penal Substitution seems to be something that is debated.
-CryptoLutheran
True, but that's because the Reformed tradition has been historically more systematic in their theology, where as Lutherans have tended to shy away from this and prefer to keep everything a mystery. Luther was the first to make PSub type comments, and the Lutheran understanding of salvation strongly suggests PSub.