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Why Sola Scriptura isn't God's plan
- Thread starter Ortho_Cat
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When someone says something about the bible...I find it in the bible to see if what they said it true or if they read it out of context. Crazy huh.
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You do know that I said...
"I haven't studied it at ALL"
I did not say "I haven't studied it ALL".
Because you assumed wrong, this statement doesn't work. My statement did not imply that I had to know ALL to know if that was a correct statement, I said that I didn't study the field at all.
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Didn't mean to make it such a big thing. I'm just a person who has to do research.
I was pointing out the specific verse y'all...Pleeeease I looked it up in Greek...SU you know I am a hellenistic Greek instructor and I agree that the verses daydreamer brought up indeed it says man
I was just clarifying that verse no harm to it. I was NOT lying that is what it actually says . Did you look it up??
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Philothei
Love never fails
No worries
I was not trying to be 'a smart alleck" either I am cool sister 
And you were good to post the remaining of the verses as they do point to that.
I was just making a point for that verse and if we see in the Bible there are many misinterprentaions like that ...hundreds as the Greek does not translate to the English in an direct manner. But all is good
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- Mar 27, 2007
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Why not? if you use them then you are using the Method of doing theology of "T"radition
Because SS does not preclude "T"raditions. SS praxis merely teaches that scripture is the authority on all matters of faith.
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Sure it does. I just don't have "bishops" as defined by your denomination.
Different debate. You can start a thread or search for the many that already exist.
You already posted the verses.
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- Aug 6, 2005
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Having bishops makes the denomination infallible, unaccountable and exempt from the issue of truth? Well, that makes the LDS infallible...
It makes my denomination infallible, unaccountable, and exempt from Truth,too (although it does not use that Greek word for the office).
IF you think truth matters in Christian doctrine (and THAT does seem to be the "rub"), then accountability matters and you've just embraced norming (the effort to evaluate the validity/correctness/truthfulness of such) and the need for a sound norma normans (rule) in such - and you've taken the first step in discussing the issue of this thread.
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Montalban
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Yes, it is.
Circluar logic is seldom recommended.
Say I tell you "Bishops are mentioned in the Bible". You go look in the Bible and there is mention of bishops. Does this prove to you my understanding of bishop.
I doubt it. It would confirm you in your own understanding, based as it is on your understanding.
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laconicstudent
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Indeed, that's called a Confirmation bias - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia and is why Sola Scriptura doesn't really work, because all it does is results in cherry-picking the Bible.
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To being exempt from the issue of truth or in being accountable?
Having NO bishop is NOT BIBLICAL
Hum..... perhaps..... But I don't see what that has to do with the topic.
And while not all use the Greek name "Bishop" (although the RCC and LDS do), nearly all denominations have bishops. I see no connection between the LDS having bishops and the LDS being infallible, unaccountable, incapable of error and exempt from the issue of truth. Nor do I see the reality that the LDS has bishops as the best rule for norming.
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Would you say having Cardinals is biblicalThanks for the straw-man.
Having a bishop is a start.
Having NO bishop is NOT BIBLICAL
http://www.christianforums.com/t7292111-7/#post49474069
'Apostolic Succession' of Roman See = House of Straw
Originally Posted by spiritmanBTW how did the RCC come up with the title of "Cardinal"?
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