Why not Apocraphy?

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ScottBot

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But you therefore miss the last step ... the reason for including the DC we are being told is Jesus quoted them. Well Jesus also quoted Buddha. Paul quoted (and cited) Greek poets. Why are they not in the Bible? You are being inconsistent.
I am not. For one, you cannot compare Jesus and Paul. Jesus is God, Paul is just a messenger. Additionally, it was the Church that decided the canon of Scripture, not Paul. Just because Paul refers to other literary works, does not make them Scripture. The authority of the Church, bestowed upon it by Christ, makes it Scripture.

And I have never made the case that the DC is in the canon BECAUSE Jesus referenced them. They are in the canon of SCripture because the Church put them in there. There are many books in the OT that are NOT quoted by Jesus. Does that make them non-canonical? Is that the test of canonicity, that Jesus quoted from them? I never have and never would make that case.
 
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CaliforniaJosiah

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Yes, the RC denomination did express it's official embrace of the Canon that God's people developed (we all believe by divine providence). But so has every other denomination. To me, an official meeting of a denomination is moot. But isn't it glorious that EVERY SINGLE DENOMINATION has accepted the exact same 39 OT books and 27 NT books - Soli Deo Gloria! Yeah, there is no consensus about these "DC" books - the OO has their list, the EO has their list, the RC has their list. Protestants generally just leave it open as an issue as yet without consensus. It's almost entirely moot anyway since it just makes virtually no difference one way or the other.



Pax!


- Josiah
 
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epistemaniac

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It's not settled in my mind.


I use the KJV (not 1611).

However, I did purchase an RSV a few years ago so that I'd have those at hand.

(FYI Up until 1611 the apocraphy was included in KJV)

After seeing firsthand, the animosity between protestants and catholics here, I don't know what to think.

Wondering why I should trust any groups who made the decisions for canonization.

No worries though, we have a lot of people on here who know the answers.

:help:
in particular you said
(FYI Up until 1611 the apocraphy was included in KJV)
I am just wondering how this can be, since the KJV was not even introduced until 1611, how then could previous versions include the apocrypha, since there were no previous versions?

blessings,
Ken
 
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epistemaniac

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repentent, you said
Do you know the Septuagint was translated into the Greek in 300 BC
Actually this is false... the LXX was translated over a period of many years, scholars estimate the time period to be over 3oo years(!!) http://www.kalvesmaki.com/LXX/

.... initially all that was produced for the library at Alexandria was the Torah... "The seventy-two (altered in a few later versions to seventy or seventy-five) translators arrived in Egypt to Ptolemy's gracious hospitality, and translated the Torah (or Pentateuch: the first five books of the Hebrew Scriptures) in seventy-two days. Although opinions as to when this occurred differ, scholars find 282 BCE an attractive date" http://www.kalvesmaki.com/LXX/

only later did other sections of the Hebrew bible and other religious texts get translated into Greek.... and it is important to also realize that the Egyptians who requested the translation had a desire for Hebrew "religious texts", and did not particularly care about issues like canonization. So just because a certain number of books ended up making up the LXX, it doesn't follow that the Jews considered all those books to be equally inspired. This would be like saying that because the Geneva translation included Calvin's catechism, that just because it happened to be between the same 2 covers as the rest of the text, it ought to therefore be considered inerrant and inspired as well.

blessings,
Ken
 
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sunlover1

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in particular you said
I am just wondering how this can be, since the KJV was not even introduced until 1611, how then could previous versions include the apocrypha, since there were no previous versions?

blessings,
Ken

Yes, I said that wrong.
But you already noticed that.
I made another silly mistake in that post too.

Thank you,
sunlover
 
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ScottBot

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Others in this thread were basing thier assumption upon this very reasoning.. :o
I was only correcting the erroneous assumption the Jesus NEVER referenced the deuterocanon, not that the canonicity of the deuterocanon is based on Jesus' references of them.
 
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jckstraw72

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I was only correcting the erroneous assumption the Jesus NEVER referenced the deuterocanon, not that the canonicity of the deuterocanon is based on Jesus' references of them.

i must say it sure doesnt hurt though...
 
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BereanTodd

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I was only correcting the erroneous assumption the Jesus NEVER referenced the deuterocanon, not that the canonicity of the deuterocanon is based on Jesus' references of them.

He didn't reference them. Again, I have shown that similarities to Jesus' teachings can be found in many places, including the words of the pagan Buddha. If you are going to assert that Jesus cited the DC, then please provide the Scripture and verse where He says "It is written ..." or some such formula (that He used for the OT 50 times or more) followed by a citation of the DC. Unless and until you do you merely have some teachings that sound similar, which I have allready shown the same can be done with the writtings of many pagans.
 
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ScottBot

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He didn't reference them. Again, I have shown that similarities to Jesus' teachings can be found in many places, including the words of the pagan Buddha. If you are going to assert that Jesus cited the DC, then please provide the Scripture and verse where He says "It is written ..." or some such formula (that He used for the OT 50 times or more) followed by a citation of the DC. Unless and until you do you merely have some teachings that sound similar, which I have allready shown the same can be done with the writtings of many pagans.
There are similarities to Jesus teachings in all cultures because Christianity doesn't have a stranglehold on Truth. Truth can be found in all cultures, and Jesus is the source of all Truth. Doesn't make these other cultural writings canonical or dogmatic.

BTW, Jesus does reference the deuterocanon, even if only in allegory. But we are going to have to agree to disagree.
 
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He didn't reference them. Again, I have shown that similarities to Jesus' teachings can be found in many places, including the words of the pagan Buddha. If you are going to assert that Jesus cited the DC, then please provide the Scripture and verse where He says "It is written ..." or some such formula (that He used for the OT 50 times or more) followed by a citation of the DC. Unless and until you do you merely have some teachings that sound similar, which I have allready shown the same can be done with the writtings of many pagans.

AMEN! :)
And VERY well said! :D
 
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BBAS 64

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Lets remember that the apostles used the LXX, not the Jewish Bible.. I don't consider the people who crucified my Lord to be the only ones to say what is genuine in the bible and what is not..

Before Martin Luther most bibles included the apocrypha. I wasn't until the 1500s till the apocrpha was totally omitted..

Good Day, Renton

BTW Luthers German translation had them, historically your implication is incorrect.

The LXX, was a Jewish Translation?? Do you have primary source infomation that the apostles used the LXX, I would be interested in reading your info, as Jerome says differently.

Not sure I get the point....:scratch:

Peace to u,

Bill
 
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I am not. For one, you cannot compare Jesus and Paul. Jesus is God, Paul is just a messenger. Additionally, it was the Church that decided the canon of Scripture, not Paul. Just because Paul refers to other literary works, does not make them Scripture. The authority of the Church, bestowed upon it by Christ, makes it Scripture.

And I have never made the case that the DC is in the canon BECAUSE Jesus referenced them. They are in the canon of SCripture because the Church put them in there. There are many books in the OT that are NOT quoted by Jesus. Does that make them non-canonical? Is that the test of canonicity, that Jesus quoted from them? I never have and never would make that case.

Good Day, Scott

Indeed your church set the canon for your denomination, on that we all agree. :clap: Seeing I am not bound to the authority you attribute to your church, nor do I belive they have said authority. I can see why you have chossen to follow them, bad choice IMHO, but your fallible choice none the less.

Peace to u,

Bill
 
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Renton405

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Good Day, Renton

BTW Luthers German translation had them, historically your implication is incorrect.

The LXX, was a Jewish Translation?? Do you have primary source infomation that the apostles used the LXX, I would be interested in reading your info, as Jerome says differently.

Not sure I get the point....:scratch:

Peace to u,

Bill

First off the KJV came from the septuagint..

the Septuagint, the Greek translation from the original Hebrew, and which contained all the writings now found in the Douay version, as it is called, was the version used by the Saviour and his Apostles and by the Church from her infancy, and translated into Latin, known under the title of Latin Vulgate, and ever recognized as the true version of the written word of God" —Preface,1914 edition


It is important to understand that the Bible the apostles generally quoted from was the Septuagint (LXX, or, 'the 70'). The LXX was a Greek translation of the Old Testament, made by the Jews in Egypt during the inter-testamental period. It actually became the most popular Bible of that period. Yet the LXX did have the apocrypha in it. (The Greek Church still uses the LXX for their Old Testament.)

Which brings us to something of note --- Most Old Testament quotations found in the New Testament actually come from the Greek Septuagint. This knowledge gives us pause, but also causes certain questions to arise in our minds. Think about this:

(1) Knowing that the LXX was extensively used by the early believers, which included the Apocrypha, why was the Apocrypha not included in the King James version that became so popular over time?

Answer: The original KJV did have the apocrypha in it. It was later removed because these books were not considered canonical.

(2) Knowing that the LXX was a translation made by Jews, and was the most popular translation used by Jewish peoples during the time of Christ, why then was this translation later rejected by the compilers of the Hebrew canon? Keep in mind that the Hebrew canon as we know it today was fixed until 95 A.D.

Answer: The apocrypha was rejected for a number of reasons, such as, the books contained were either history (Macabbees, etc.), or had to do with fables, or were written under a pseudonym. But there was a much greater reason.

The Septuagint itself gave the clearest prophetic references to Christ that were to be found. The Christians used it extensively to prove that Jesus Christ was God's Anointed. It became so useful for witnessing that the Jewish authorities turned away from it in its entirety. They not only rejected the Septuagint, but they also turned from the writings of Philo, and the writings of Josephus. Why? Because all three writings could be used to reinforce that Jesus was indeed God's Messiah.

But this brings me back to the apocrypha. Certain writings in the Apocrypha could be used to testify to Jesus. And it is possible that some New Testament passages even had these writings in view. This is especially true in the case of 'The Wisdom of the Son of Sirach (Ecclesiasticus).'

The inter-testimonial period was a time in which both the Greek world and the Hebrew world was undergoing changes in thinking. It was these changes that helped prepare the world for Jesus Christ.

I've often spoken of how the Hebrews and Greeks shared a common understanding about God's hidden mystery in which He created the world. The Greeks called this mystery 'Logos.' The Hebrews call the mystery 'Memra.' (Both terms speak of the 'Word' in creative activity. The terms 'Word' and 'Wisdom' were often interchanged.)

And this is what we see in the wisdom books of the Apocrypha. But again we have to be cautious in applying exactness to any of these writings. Here are New Testament quotes that show some kinship to the wisdom writings in the Apocrypha:

(1) Luke 7:35; "[Jesus said] Yet wisdom is vindicated by all her children."

Ecclesiasticus 4:11; "Wisdom raises her sons to greatness and cares for those who seek her."

(2) Gal6:6; "The one who is taught the word is to share all good things with the one who teaches him."

Ecclesiasticus 7:30; "Love your Maker with all your might and do not leave his ministers without support."

(3) 1Tim6:12; "Fight the good fight of faith; take hold of the eternal life to which you were called, and you made the good confession in the presence of many witnesses."

Ecclesiasticus 4:28; "Fight to the death for truth, and the Lord God will fight on your side."

(4) John 6:35; "Jesus said to them, 'I am the bread of life; he who comes to Me will not hunger, and he who believes in Me will never thirst.'"

This one is very interesting. Jesus actually reverses a quote from the Apocrypha.

Ecclesiasticus 24:21; "[Wisdom says] Whoever feeds on me will be hungry for more, and whoever drinks from me will thirst for more."

(5) 1Co2:7,8; "... but we speak God's wisdom in a mystery, the hidden wisdom which God predestined before the ages to our glory, the wisdom which none of the rulers of this age has understood...."

Another interesting one in that Jesus fulfills what remained unfulfilled prior to His coming.

Ecclesiasticus 24:28,29; "No man has ever fully known wisdom; from first to last no one has fathomed her; for her thoughts are vaster than the ocean and her purpose deeper than the great abyss."



Luther may have included some of the apocrypha in an index in his bible. But later on they were totally discarded. The problem is they are many messianic prophetic utterances in the apocrypha that add to the prophecy of Christ. I personally think that people should perserve and hold to the tradition that happened in the times of Christ and not alter things later on. The inclusion of the apocrypha does not hurt anyone..
 
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Renton405

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Old Testament Quotations


Some Notes on the Apostles' usage of the Septuagint



Mat. 3:3. The Hebrew of Isa. 40:3 may be rendered, "The voice of one crying, In the wilderness prepare the way for the Lord." The crier himself is not necessarily in the wilderness: the path is to be prepared in the wilderness. Matthew follows the Septuagint in construing "in the wilderness" with "one crying," and so renders "The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare the way of the Lord." Here the cry comes from one who is himself in the wilderness, that is, from John the Baptist, who habitually preached in the wilderness of Judea.

Mat. 12:21. The Hebrew of Isa. 42:4 reads, "and the isles shall have hope in his law." Matthew follows the Septuagint interpretation of this, "and the Gentiles shall have hope in his name."

Mat. 13: 14-15. The Hebrew of Isa. 6:9-10 reads, "Hear ye indeed, but understand not; and see ye indeed, but perceive not. Make the heart of this people fat, and make their ears heavy, and shut their eyes; lest they see..." Matthew follows the Septuagint in changing the first sentence from two commands to the people into a prophetic description of the people, "Ye shall surely hear, but shall not understand; ye shall surely see, but shall not perceive." He also follows the Septuagint in changing the second sentence from two commands to the prophet into a description of the present condition of the people: "This people's heart has become gross, and their ears are dull of hearing, and their eyes they have closed; lest they see..."

Mat. 15:8-9. The Hebrew of Isa. 29:13 reads (somewhat obscurely), "their worship of me is but a commandment of men which hath been taught them." The phrase, "but in vain do they worship me," in which Matthew follows the Septuagint, was created by the translator of the Septuagint by separating "their worship of me" from the words that follow and supplying the thought "is in vain" to complete the sense, and then construing the rest of the sentence adverbially, "teaching the precepts and doctrines of men." The sense of the passage is not materially changed in this.

Mat. 21:16. The Hebrew of Psa. 8:2 reads, "out of the mouth of babes and sucklings thou hast established strength." Matthew follows the Septuagint with "thou hast prepared praise."

Mark 1:2. See remarks on Mat. 3:3 above.

Mark 4:12. See remarks on Mat. 13:14-15 above. Mark departs from both the Hebrew and Septuagint with the interpretation, "and it should be forgiven them," instead of "and I should heal them" (Septuagint) or "and be healed" (Hebrew).

Mark 7:6-7. See remarks on Mat. 15:8-9 above.

Luke 3:4. See remarks on Mat. 3:3 above.

Luke 3:5-6. The Hebrew of Isa. 40:4-5 reads "every valley shall be exalted...all flesh shall see it [i.e., the glory of the Lord] together." Luke follows the Septuagint with "every valley shall be filled...all flesh shall see the salvation of God."

Luke 4:18. The Hebrew of Isa. 61:2 reads merely "the opening to them that are bound," which may mean the opening of prisons. Luke follows the Septuagint interpretation, "the recovering of sight to the blind," in which the "opening" is of blind eyes, but adds "to set at liberty the afflicted" as an alternative interpretation of the Hebrew. The phrase "to bind up the broken-hearted" (Septuagint "to heal the broken-hearted") has been left out of the quotation.

Luke 8:10. The allusion to Isa. 6:9 conforms to the Septuagint. See remarks on Mat. 13:14-15 above.

John 1:23. See remarks on Mat. 3:3 above. John's quotation is somewhat looser.

John 12:34. There is a verbal correspondence here to the Septuagint of Psa. 89:36, "his [David's] seed shall abide forever."

John 12:38. "Lord" at the beginning of the quotation is not in the Hebrew, but in the Septuagint.

John 12:40. See remarks on Mat. 13:14-15 and Mark 4:12 above. John is quoting the Septuagint loosely, with reference to the Hebrew.

Acts 2:19-20. The Hebrew of Joel 2:30-31 has "pillars of smoke" and "terrible day." Luke follows the Septuagint with "vapour of smoke" and "glorious day."

Acts 2:26. The Hebrew of Psa. 16:9 has "my glory rejoiceth." Luke follows the Septuagint with "my tongue rejoiced."

Acts 2:28. The Hebrew of Psa. 16:11 has "in thy presence is fulness of joy; in thy right hand there are pleasures for evermore." Luke follows the Septuagint in paraphrasing the first clause "Thou shalt make me full of gladness with thy countenance," and in dropping the last clause.

Acts 4:26. The Hebrew of Psa 2:2. reads, "the rulers take counsel together." Luke follows the Septuagint, "the rulers were gathered together."

Acts 7:14. The Hebrew of Gen. 46:27 and Exod. 1:5 has "seventy." Luke follows the Septuagint with "seventy-five."

Acts 7:43. The Hebrew of Amos 5:26 is difficult. It seems to say, "ye took up the tabernacle of Moloch and Chiun your images , the star of your god, which ye made." Luke follows the Septuagint interpretation with "ye took up the tabernacle of Moloch and the star of the god Rephan, the figures which ye made."

Acts 8:33. The Hebrew of Isa. 53:8 reads "he was taken away by distress and judgment." Luke follows the Septuagint with "in his humiliation his judgment was taken away."

Acts 13:34. The Hebrew of Isa. 55:3 has "the sure mercies of David." Luke follows the Septuagint with "the holy and sure things of David."

Acts 13:41. The Hebrew of Habakkuk 1:5 reads, "Behold, ye among the nations, and look, and wonder exceedingly." The Septuagint has "Behold, ye despisers, and look, and wonder exceedingly, and perish," which Luke largely follows.

Acts 15:17. The Hebrew of Amos 9:12 reads "that they may possess the remnant of Edom, and all the nations upon whom my name is called." The Septuagint has "that the remnant of men and all the nations upon whom my name is called may seek after [me]," which Luke largely follows.

Acts 28:26-27. See remarks on Mat. 13:14-15 and Mark 4:12 above. Here Luke follows the Septuagint exactly.

Rom. 2:24. The Hebrew of Isa. 52:5 reads merely, "my name continually every day is blasphemed." The Septuagint has "because of you my name is continually blasphemed aong the Gentiles," which Paul follows.

Rom 3:4. The Hebrew of Psa. 51:4 reads "and blameless when thou judgest." Paul follows the Septuagint with "and prevail when thou dost enter into judgment."

Rom. 3:12. The Hebrew of Psa. 14:3 reads, "they are together become filthy." Paul follows the Septuagint with "they are together become unprofitable."

Rom 3:14. The Hebrew of Psa. 10:7 reads, "his mouth is full of cursing and deceit." Paul follows the Septuagint with "whose mouth is full of cursing and bitterness."

Rom 9:28. The Hebrew of Isa. 10:22-23 is difficult. It seems to say, "a destruction is decreed, overflowing with righteousness. For a completion, one that is decreed, shall the Lord Jehovah of Hosts make in the midst of all the earth." The Septuagint abbreviates with "He will finish the work, and cut it short in righteousness; because the Lord will make a short work in all the earth," which is followed by Paul.




If The Lord Jesus Christ quoted from the King James Bible, then the case for the King James would be irrefutable.

Ah, but the Lord has quoted from the Septuagint. Matthew chapter 4 records the Lord Jesus being tempted by the devil.

As Jesus was being tempted, He rebuked the devil with the truth: God’s holy word.

But, Jesus quotes the Greek Scriptures to him! Matthew 4:4 says, “It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God.”

How can we tell? Because the Hebrew Scriptures says in that verse “The mouth of the Lord”, but the Greek Old Testament says, “The mouth of God.”


There are many, many more examples. The human author that God used to pen the Book of Hebrews didn’t even have the Hebrew Scriptures with him when he wrote that Book, for every Old Testament quotation in the Book of Hebrews is taken out of the Septuagint Old Testament.
 
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First off the KJV came from the septuagint..

the Septuagint, the Greek translation from the original Hebrew, and which contained all the writings now found in the Douay version, as it is called, was the version used by the Saviour and his Apostles and by the Church from her infancy, and translated into Latin, known under the title of Latin Vulgate, and ever recognized as the true version of the written word of God" —Preface,1914 edition
Good Day, Renton

I agree with much of this.


It is important to understand that the Bible the apostles generally quoted from was the Septuagint (LXX, or, 'the 70'). The LXX was a Greek translation of the Old Testament, made by the Jews in Egypt during the inter-testamental period. It actually became the most popular Bible of that period. Yet the LXX did have the apocrypha in it. (The Greek Church still uses the LXX for their Old Testament.)

Which brings us to something of note --- Most Old Testament quotations found in the New Testament actually come from the Greek Septuagint. This knowledge gives us pause, but also causes certain questions to arise in our minds. Think about this:

Indeed some do still use the LXX.

(1) Knowing that the LXX was extensively used by the early believers, which included the Apocrypha, why was the Apocrypha not included in the King James version that became so popular over time?

Answer: The original KJV did have the apocrypha in it. It was later removed because these books were not considered canonical.

(2) Knowing that the LXX was a translation made by Jews, and was the most popular translation used by Jewish peoples during the time of Christ, why then was this translation later rejected by the compilers of the Hebrew canon? Keep in mind that the Hebrew canon as we know it today was fixed until 95 A.D.

Answer: The apocrypha was rejected for a number of reasons, such as, the books contained were either history (Macabbees, etc.), or had to do with fables, or were written under a pseudonym. But there was a much greater reason.

The Septuagint itself gave the clearest prophetic references to Christ that were to be found. The Christians used it extensively to prove that Jesus Christ was God's Anointed. It became so useful for witnessing that the Jewish authorities turned away from it in its entirety. They not only rejected the Septuagint, but they also turned from the writings of Philo, and the writings of Josephus. Why? Because all three writings could be used to reinforce that Jesus was indeed God's Messiah.

But this brings me back to the apocrypha. Certain writings in the Apocrypha could be used to testify to Jesus. And it is possible that some New Testament passages even had these writings in view. This is especially true in the case of 'The Wisdom of the Son of Sirach (Ecclesiasticus).'

The inter-testimonial period was a time in which both the Greek world and the Hebrew world was undergoing changes in thinking. It was these changes that helped prepare the world for Jesus Christ.

I've often spoken of how the Hebrews and Greeks shared a common understanding about God's hidden mystery in which He created the world. The Greeks called this mystery 'Logos.' The Hebrews call the mystery 'Memra.' (Both terms speak of the 'Word' in creative activity. The terms 'Word' and 'Wisdom' were often interchanged.)

And this is what we see in the wisdom books of the Apocrypha. But again we have to be cautious in applying exactness to any of these writings. Here are New Testament quotes that show some kinship to the wisdom writings in the Apocrypha:

(1) Luke 7:35; "[Jesus said] Yet wisdom is vindicated by all her children."

Ecclesiasticus 4:11; "Wisdom raises her sons to greatness and cares for those who seek her."

(2) Gal6:6; "The one who is taught the word is to share all good things with the one who teaches him."

Ecclesiasticus 7:30; "Love your Maker with all your might and do not leave his ministers without support."

(3) 1Tim6:12; "Fight the good fight of faith; take hold of the eternal life to which you were called, and you made the good confession in the presence of many witnesses."

Ecclesiasticus 4:28; "Fight to the death for truth, and the Lord God will fight on your side."

(4) John 6:35; "Jesus said to them, 'I am the bread of life; he who comes to Me will not hunger, and he who believes in Me will never thirst.'"

This one is very interesting. Jesus actually reverses a quote from the Apocrypha.

Ecclesiasticus 24:21; "[Wisdom says] Whoever feeds on me will be hungry for more, and whoever drinks from me will thirst for more."

(5) 1Co2:7,8; "... but we speak God's wisdom in a mystery, the hidden wisdom which God predestined before the ages to our glory, the wisdom which none of the rulers of this age has understood...."

Another interesting one in that Jesus fulfills what remained unfulfilled prior to His coming.

Ecclesiasticus 24:28,29; "No man has ever fully known wisdom; from first to last no one has fathomed her; for her thoughts are vaster than the ocean and her purpose deeper than the great abyss."



Luther may have included some of the apocrypha in an index in his bible. But later on they were totally discarded. The problem is they are many messianic prophetic utterances in the apocrypha that add to the prophecy of Christ. I personally think that people should perserve and hold to the tradition that happened in the times of Christ and not alter things later on. The inclusion of the apocrypha does not hurt anyone..

You make some good points here, the NT writtings are indeed in Greek, and do appear to quote the LXX that is because they are both Greek.

If we were both to write a book on Windows Networking in english in some cases it would appear that we are quoting each other. When in fact we are not.

You said: in many different ways

"Knowing that the LXX was extensively used by the early believers"

But, you have shown no historical basis for this assertion.

The RCC PONTIFICAL BIBLICAL COMMISSION notes on the notion:


"There are differences between the Jewish canon of Scripture30 “Law”, Nebi'im, “Prophets”, and Ketubim, other “Writings”. The number 24 was often reduced to 22, the number of letters in the Hebrew alphabet. In the Christian canon, to these 2422 books correspond 39 books, called “protocanonical”. The numerical difference is explained by the fact that the Jews regarded as one book several writings that are distinct in the Christian canon, the writings of the Twelve Prophets, for example.] and the Christian canon of the Old Testament.31 To explain these differences, it was generally thought that at the beginning of the Christian era, there existed two canons within Judaism: a Hebrew or Palestinian canon, and an extended Alexandrian canon in Greek — called the Septuagint — which was adopted by Christians.
Recent research and discoveries, however, have cast doubt on this opinion. It now seems more probable that at the time of Christianity's birth, closed collections of the Law and the Prophets existed in a textual form substantially identical with the Old Testament. The collection of “Writings”, on the other hand, was not as well defined either in Palestine or in the Jewish diaspora, with regard to the number of books and their textual form. Towards the end of the first century A.D., it seems that 2422 books were generally accepted by Jews as sacred,32 but it is only much later that the list became exclusive.33 When the limits of the Hebrew canon were fixed, the deuterocanonical books were not included."

Much of your premise here is doubtfull at best, in that it lacks any historical basis.​

The reading of the (Apoc) will not hurt any one agreed. I have read some of them, nor will the reading of the ECF's or J Calvin or Luther. They are usefull indeed the question is are they a source on which we are to base doctrine? Should they be viewed on the same level as the other 22-24 books of the jewish scriptures?

Not sure how you arrived at some date of 95 for the fixing of the Jewish canon??? Jesus held the the Jews to a collection of books during OT times, these books would have been well know to the Jews of His day.

Peace to u,

Bill
 
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albertmc

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There are differences between the Jewish canon of Scripture30 “Law”, Nebi'im, “Prophets”, and Ketubim, other “Writings”. The number 24 was often reduced to 22, the number of letters in the Hebrew alphabet. In the Christian canon, to these 2422 books correspond 39 books, called “protocanonical”. The numerical difference is explained by the fact that the Jews regarded as one book several writings that are distinct in the Christian canon, the writings of the Twelve Prophets, for example.] and the Christian canon of the Old Testament.31 To explain these differences, it was generally thought that at the beginning of the Christian era, there existed two canons within Judaism: a Hebrew or Palestinian canon, and an extended Alexandrian canon in Greek — called the Septuagint — which was adopted by Christians.
Recent research and discoveries, however, have cast doubt on this opinion. It now seems more probable that at the time of Christianity's birth, closed collections of the Law and the Prophets existed in a textual form substantially identical with the Old Testament. The collection of “Writings”, on the other hand, was not as well defined either in Palestine or in the Jewish diaspora, with regard to the number of books and their textual form. Towards the end of the first century A.D., it seems that 2422 books were generally accepted by Jews as sacred,32 but it is only much later that the list became exclusive.33 When the limits of the Hebrew canon were fixed, the deuterocanonical books were not included."​

Much of your premise here is doubtfull at best, in that it lacks any historical basis.​

The reading of the (Apoc) will not hurt any one agreed. I have read some of them, nor will the reading of the ECF's or J Calvin or Luther. They are usefull indeed the question is are they a source on which we are to base doctrine? Should they be viewed on the same level as the other 22-24 books of the jewish scriptures?

Not sure how you arrived at some date of 95 for the fixing of the Jewish canon??? Jesus held the the Jews to a collection of books during OT times, these books would have been well know to the Jews of His day.

Peace to u,

Bill

The quote from the Pontifical Biblical Commission does not actually state what you think it does. It really does nothing to contradict the Catholic position but gives the development a different spin.

What is states first is the previous assumptions on the difference in canons. This theory had two canons - one Palestinian and one Alexandrian with the Church opting for the latter. This is unsatisfactory for a number of reasons - not the least of which is believing that a group of Palestinian Jews would for no apparent reason opt for the non-Palestinian canon.

Their new position reflects the obvious fact that it can takes years for traditions to be set down in writing and further time to be accepted as Scripture. The events in the Gospels were probably taught and presumably written down in various forms (Luke even seems to attest to this) before their compilation in the form we now have in our Scriptures.

The commission DOES NOT STATE the books were not part of the Apostolic Church's canon. Where you might be getting confused is the statement:

"It now seems more probable that at the time of Christianity's birth, closed collections of the Law and the Prophets existed in a textual form substantially identical with the Old Testament. The collection of “Writings”, on the other hand, was not as well defined either in Palestine or in the Jewish diaspora, with regard to the number of books and their textual form."

This does not assert the books were not held as Scripture by first century Christians and Jews. What it states is that the collections of the Law and Prophets were firmly established but the collection of Writings varied. Since the books in question were in the Writings, what they are saying is that Jews accepted varying numbers of these books but they were still in the process of being accepted - eventually some would be accepted and some rejected just as in the past but there was disagreement throughout Judaism and it was not based on geography as believed earlier.

The difference between the two positions is asserting that there was no fixed canon or even a process by which it would be fixed. We can see through archealogical finds that various groups at the time held different canons (e.g., the Qumran community had their own extra books). The difference was that the books known as protocanonical were older and had achieved universal acceptance while the deuterocanonical books had not had time to be universally accepted or rejected.

The Jews would eventually firmly reject these books sometime in the late first century. The Church would come to accept some of these books (there were actually some rejected). To be honest, given the lack of firmly inherited Jewish canon, the influx of non-Jewish converts, and the persecution of the Church, it was probably feuled by whatever collection of Scriptures they could get their hands on and then these were then copied to be used by other communities.

The canon of the Church (and with the Jews) was not, as some suppose, decided in councils or by some checklist procedure but by what got read during the Church's liturgy. Once a book got read enough, it was considered in the canon. This process would be formalized in later councils but it was just a matter of which bishops had included which books in their readings. As I mentioned in previous posts, this process included the New Testament as well with five books - II Peter, II John, III John, Jude, and Revelation - being rejected by much of the Church. Eventually they were accepted by all Churches in the Roman Empire but not universally outside it.

As an Anglican, I would naturally take the middle position in this argument. Anglicans hold the books in question to be of a secondary nature. They are included in the lectionary and in Bibles (much to the shock of many fundamentalists, the 1611 Kings James Version is an Anglican Bible and did include them) but are not to be used as the sole source of forming doctrine. Thus they are considered a source of Jewish and early Church tradition but are not on a par with the other books of the Old and New Testament. They do, however, give important information on the beliefs of the period leading up to the time of Christ and they do include things that are quite obviously prophecies of the coming Messiah that are fulfilled quite accurately to the Lord Jesus.
 
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