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So what is the reason?There is a reason for it just as there is reason
a nonbeliever wants to know why God tolerated men having multiple wives in the Bible...as if they would become a believer.
I understand the biblical model for marriage is one man and one women for life. I recently had a curious nonbeliever ask me why God tolerated men having multiple wives in the Bible. What would your response be?
The ancient Hebrew tribes were strongly patriarchal. The OT was written by these men (Moses and others) so it reflects their culture and social traditions. Women were certainly valued, but more akin to the way property is valued. If a man could afford it, he could have 2 or more flocks of sheep, and 2 or more wives/concubines. And though the 10 Commandments forbids adultery and coveting another’s wife, it doesn’t forbid a man from marrying multiple wives.
It seemed to have been a temporary concession to Jews. It's good to remember that:I understand the biblical model for marriage is one man and one women for life. I recently had a curious nonbeliever ask me why God tolerated men having multiple wives in the Bible. What would your response be?
This is fine. But it leads to the question I've been concerned about: how about attitudes toward homosexual monogamy? Was this also cultural?So there are the cultural artifacts of the Bible, but then the ideals we should strive for, which the Scriptures themselves show us by pointing us to Christ.
This is a good example where polygamy is not only tolerated but even commanded. It is clear that polygyny may be beneficial in a society where young men are being killed in wars. If Solomon had almost 1000 wives, it was probably related to the wars between David and Saul and the wars with Israel's neighbors.For the Jews, there were times when a man was obligated to marry his sister-in-law (if his brother died before giving her children). It didn't matter if he already had a wife of his own.
Scholars generally agree that the Priestly Tradition in the Pentateuch was written during the exile. This is after the kingdoms of Israel and Judah were destroyed. So, the kings did not read Leviticus. In the books of Samuel and Kings and the pre-exile Prophets you don't see evidence that people knew about its rules, except for the rules that were already part of their tradition.In the law it also told the kings (in advance) exactly how to not act, but they did it anyway.
The biblical definition of adultery is a wife having sexual relations outside marriage. A husband having sexual relations outside marriage is fornication / sexual immorality but it is not adultery.And though the 10 Commandments forbids adultery and coveting another’s wife, it doesn’t forbid a man from marrying multiple wives.
People did a lot of bad things in the OT. Lot slept with his daughters and borne children. Abraham was married to his half sister. There's lots of sin in the OT that God would not tolerate today--because we know better by the laws of God and the teachings in the NT.
I haven't seen that show, but it was crazy in the OT. Pretty much anything goes. God said there was no law to guide the people, so he didn't hold their sins against them.Abraham was like game of thrones.
I wouldn't say that. If that were the case, God wouldn't have destroyed the world by flooding or Sodom and Gomorrah by fire.I haven't seen that show, but it was crazy in the OT. Pretty much anything goes. God said there was no law to guide the people, so he didn't hold their sins against them.
I was referring to Romans 5:13 To be sure, sin was in the world before the law was given, but sin is not charged against anyone's account where there is no law.I wouldn't say that. If that were the case, God wouldn't have destroyed the world by flooding or Sodom and Gomorrah by fire.
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