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Why is the day of worship controversial?

ace of hearts

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Why do you ignore that God told Moses other things to tell and require of the people calling them the invention of Moses?

Now you think I ignore the famous 10. When the reality is you ignore the words of Jeremiah found in 31:31-33 and the words of Jesus found in Luke 22:20. It isn't that I ignore the famous 10 you only know about because of the Book of the Law. It's that I've accepted the New Covenant in full. The law isn't part and parcel to the New Covenant.
 
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BobRyan

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So your idea is Joshua wrote the Book of the Law on stone.

God wrote the TEN on stone and that LAW was placed inside the ark. Moses wrote the rest and placed them outside the ark.

Still "ALL scripture" not just that which is on stone "is inspired by God AND to be used for doctrine" 2 Tim 3:16 ... Bible details matter.
 
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BobRyan

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Why do you ignore that God told Moses other things to tell and require of the people .

As both the Sunday and the Bible-Sabbath affirm Christians freely admit - the ceremonial laws ended at the cross according to Hebrew 10:4-12 and 1 Cor 7:19 where circumcision is contrasted with the moral law of God - that all agree includes the TEN Commandments.

Why get stuck on the easy part - when both sides already agree to this simple and obvious Bible fact?
 
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mmksparbud

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I didn't say you are ignoring the "famous 10"-- I said you ignore the fact that the law of God, the 10, were written by God Himself--the law of Moses was dictated by God and Moses wrote those on parchment. God differentiated the 2--not us. That is what you are ignoring! The reason He did them differently is plain, the law of Moses--the sacrificial laws, the ordinances would be done away with at the cross, when Jesus became the sacrificial Lamb and our High Priest. The new covenant in full---the law is written in the heart now. Again --whether in the heart or on stone--"THEY ARE WRITTEN" not done away with! circumcision--done away with--the killing of animals--done away with , all feasts that pointed to Jesus as the slain lamb--pone away with---none of them mentioned in the 10---all of them nailed to the cross---none of them written in the heart--the 10---written in the heart, not done away with.
 
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ace of hearts

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then it is a different agreement but it references the same law in both cases.
I agree it's a different agreement. So the new agreement references the old agreement. That doesn't mean it's actually the same agreement just moved. If that were the case there's no new covenant (agreement). From one side of your mouth you say new agreement while from the other side you claim it's the same agreement. How can that be? "Not according to..." means not the same in contents. It doesn't refer to place or method of conveyance.
The agreement is not the same.
Amen!
The LAW is the same. it is the one Jeremiah and his readers knew about "this IS the NEW Covenant.. I will write My LAW on their heart and mind" Jeremiah 31:31-33
The new has nothing to do with what Jeremiah and his readers already knew. Jeremiah says new as in unprecedented meaning never before.
So then it is STILL a sin to take God's name in vain. Even under the NEW Covenant.
I think your understanding of this is very limited.
 
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ace of hearts

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Hint: Hebrews 7 does not say Jesus is a sinner.
I'm glad you believe that. I also believe that. So the choice is the law has indeed changed. Remember not a jot nor tittle can or could change until all things were fulfilled. Evidently all things have been fulfilled. Or you have to chose Heb 7:12 is a lie because the priesthood has changed. That is a jot and tittle of the law. That makes your idea of Mat 5 error. Why should anyone believe someone that teaches opposing things to be true that cancel out the other? Indeed what Paul says in Galatians 5 holds water. Like I said you really don't believe Mat 5 and admit jots and tittles of the law have indeed changed. Like I said you really don't believe Mat 5 and admit jots and tittles of the law have indeed changed.
Hebrews 7 says that the law regarding priesthood is changed -- it does not say "it is ok to take God's name in vain now that Christ is high priest" -- as we all know.
Like I said you really don't believe Mat 5 and admit jots and tittles of the law have indeed changed.
 
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eleos1954

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Hebrews 7:12 For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law (Moses law).

This verse is in regard to the ceremonial/sacrificial system (Moses laws) ... Jesus became our High Priest when He died on the cross that system (Moses laws) were no longer necessary, that was the law that was changed - eventually ended and done away with.

Hebrews 4

Jesus the Great High Priest

Hebrews 4

14 Therefore, since we have a great high priest who has ascended into heaven, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold firmly to the faith we profess.”

"Remember you support the idea all things aren't fulfilled and the law can't change."

Not so ... the laws of Moses were done away with ... that was the change.

God does not break His covenants ... people do. Israel broke covenant (the 10) with God.

Exodus 32

The Golden Calf

32 When the people saw that Moses was so long in coming down from the mountain, they gathered around Aaron and said, “Come, make us gods who will go before us. As for this fellow Moses who brought us up out of Egypt, we don’t know what has happened to him.”

Broke commandment #1 & #2

20Now may the God of peace, who through the blood of the eternal covenant brought back from the dead our Lord Jesus, the great Shepherd of the sheep, 21equip you with every good thing to do His will. And may He accomplish in us what is pleasing in His sight through Jesus Christ, to whom be glory forever and ever. Amen.

If you love me keep my commandments. (This is His will)

Romans 6

15 What then? Shall we sin because we are not under law (the 10), but under grace (Jesus)? Certainly not! 16Do you not know that when you offer yourselves (accept Jesus) as obedient slaves, you are slaves to the one you obey, whether you are slaves to sin leading to death, or to obedience leading to righteousness?

obey who (Jesus)

who says over and over

If you love me keep my commandments.

Jesus had no sin ... He did not transgress the Law (the 10)

Again, it's the motive .... the motive is love .... and through His Love He will help us (through the Holy Spirit - and we respond out of love) to overcome our sins (life-long process) ... sin is transgression of the Law (the 10) without the Law there would not be any sin. So, obliviously the 10 are still in effect and not done away with.

Revelation 3:21

“To him who overcomes I will grant to sit with Me on My throne, as I also overcame and sat down with My Father on His throne.
 
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ace of hearts

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You rely only on words when it comes to the truth. For you actions have no meaning when it comes to words. In practice what you claim isn't true. Your and their definitions of words don't agree.
 
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ace of hearts

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I don't ignore that fact. The famous 10 are the covenant Jeremiah talks about in Jeremiah 31:31-33. He plainly says there is a new unprecedented covenant coming. Jesus proclaims this new and unprecedented covenant is now current. That voids the previous covenant Jeremiah said was given to their fathers after departure from Egypt given to no one else.

Both the stone tablets and the rest of what God told Moses to write are from God and are His (God's) law which you seem to deny. If you don't your argument holds no water.

Mat 5 says no jot or title of the law can pass until all things are fulfilled. Luke 24:44 says all things are fulfilled. If they weren't passages like Heb 7:12 are false. If you believe is true, you don't accept the all Scripture.
 
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ace of hearts

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Doesn't matter. The evidence is the law changed.
 
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ace of hearts

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The only days mentioned after the cross is the first day of the week. Why no sabbath?
 
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ace of hearts

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Visit Jeremiah 31:31-33.
 
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ace of hearts

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Enoch kept the law, i.e.from the heart he lived righteously, lived right without sinning, before TORAH was given to Moses.
Enoch didn't keep the law that came 430 years after Abraham. Moses says so in Deut 5.
 
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ace of hearts

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You seem to be confused. Your question was...



Why does there need to be a mention of the name ISRAEL in GALATIANS 3:28-28? Maybe you forgot your own question.
What does GALATIANS 3:28-28 talk about? Is it about Israel or Jesus?
 
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ace of hearts

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Yes those passages are aimed at me. You resort to this type of response when your other posts aren't accepted as truth for Christians. In my personal experience all cult members do this sort of thing. Your issue is I don't practice the covenant given to Israel and reject the Gospel. So you try to gain compliance by threatening with eternal damnation. Religion stinks.
 
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ace of hearts

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Denial of the record will get you no where.
 
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ace of hearts

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Doesn't address Joshua.
 
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ace of hearts

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So you claim no jots and tittles of the law can pass with Mat 5 and claim some have with Hebrews 10. Make up your mind.
 
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yeshuaslavejeff

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Enoch didn't keep the law that came 430 years after Abraham. Moses says so in Deut 5.
'from the heart' Read Romans 2.

Enoch OBEYED Yahweh, just as disciples /followers of Jesus are expected to DO.
 
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BobRyan

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So you claim no jots and tittles of the law can pass with Mat 5 and claim some have with Hebrews 10. Make up your mind.

As both the Sunday and the Bible-Sabbath affirm Christians freely admit - the ceremonial laws ended at the cross according to Hebrew 10:4-12 and 1 Cor 7:19 where circumcision is contrasted with the moral law of God - that all agree includes the TEN Commandments.

Matthew 5 is in reference to the moral law of God and Christ expands on it in that very same chapter.


Why get stuck on the easy part - when both sides already agree to this simple and obvious Bible fact?
 
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