- Oct 24, 2019
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And not 1830's American English?
I have read the "rock in the hat" story.
There is a difference between 1769 King James English and 1830's American English. If JS was really "seeing" a "translation" in the hat - what was the purpose of him seeing this outdated English?
My theory is that the whole "translation" stuff is false; that JS made it sound like the KJV so it would "sound holy" - "sound like the Bible" etc.
My purpose is to create awareness among Nicene Christians of how absurd the alleged "translation" process is. If the handful of Mormons here can offer any explanation which will show why the BOM came to be in the language of King James English rather than the 1830's American English, let it come.
I have learned much since 2013 when I first came here as Anto9us. Phoebe and drstevej have brought out much to me, the Mormons themselves have made me see their faith not as some benign variant but rather a true cult of outlandish origins.
So why the King James English and not 1830's American English?
If it was God Almighty driving the "translation" - how did BOM arrive in language from many many decades earlier?
I have read the "rock in the hat" story.
There is a difference between 1769 King James English and 1830's American English. If JS was really "seeing" a "translation" in the hat - what was the purpose of him seeing this outdated English?
My theory is that the whole "translation" stuff is false; that JS made it sound like the KJV so it would "sound holy" - "sound like the Bible" etc.
My purpose is to create awareness among Nicene Christians of how absurd the alleged "translation" process is. If the handful of Mormons here can offer any explanation which will show why the BOM came to be in the language of King James English rather than the 1830's American English, let it come.
I have learned much since 2013 when I first came here as Anto9us. Phoebe and drstevej have brought out much to me, the Mormons themselves have made me see their faith not as some benign variant but rather a true cult of outlandish origins.
So why the King James English and not 1830's American English?
If it was God Almighty driving the "translation" - how did BOM arrive in language from many many decades earlier?