- May 28, 2018
- 13,198
- 5,703
- 68
- Country
- United States
- Faith
- Reformed
- Marital Status
- Widowed
Why is "fallen short of the Glory of God" said in the same breath as "all have sinned"?
I mean, it's rather obvious that sinning is falling short of God's command and short of the Law, and short of so many other things about God. But his glory?
Why does it mention his glory? Is it as simple as to say that we do not glorify him by sinning, or maybe that we are not as good as him? If that's all it means, why does it bother to say it? --after all, it IS obvious. And, if that's all it means, what are the implications for other doctrines besides the doctrine of sin?
Or is it talking about more than merely that we are not as good as God or that we don't glorify him when we sin?
All my life I have heard this verse, and it never really added up --why does it speak of his GLORY? Are there implications here specific to Hamartiology and Soteriology? Are there implications to other areas of study and life?
I mean, it's rather obvious that sinning is falling short of God's command and short of the Law, and short of so many other things about God. But his glory?
Why does it mention his glory? Is it as simple as to say that we do not glorify him by sinning, or maybe that we are not as good as him? If that's all it means, why does it bother to say it? --after all, it IS obvious. And, if that's all it means, what are the implications for other doctrines besides the doctrine of sin?
Or is it talking about more than merely that we are not as good as God or that we don't glorify him when we sin?
All my life I have heard this verse, and it never really added up --why does it speak of his GLORY? Are there implications here specific to Hamartiology and Soteriology? Are there implications to other areas of study and life?