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Absolutely!Either way, as far as the OP is concerned, can we at least agree that what Jesus went through was sufficient enough? The bible said the LORD was pleased and satisfied -what else could be required beyond that?
Wrong bible. Look again. You will find it. Oh, and pray before you look for it. Having an earnest heart and true desire to find the truth will help tremendously in looking for it..., yourself.
He paid a penalty that would have left us permanently physically dead. Before Jesus' death, all the dead remained dead without hope of resurrection.
And that might matter to someone for whatever reason, and that's fine.
...Why you asked a question you apparently knew the answer to seems odd however.
So, the penalty is not just dying, but dying permanently?
Boy, those OT saints must have been a miserable lot.
Jesus did not take all our sins to hell since Jesus did not go to hell. Unless by hell people mean simply the grave.
.....I think many people think this verse is talking about Jesus going to hell.
1 Peter 3:18-20"spirits in prison" does not refer to "hell." "Hell" is never called "prison" in the Bible and "prison" is never called "hell." If Jesus was preaching to dead spirits in hell, how is it that the only people saved were Noah and his family who were not dead in hell but alive on the earth when they were saved?
(18) For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit:
(19) By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison;
(20) Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water.
.....What does prison refer to in 1 Peter 3:19? In Luk 4:18 Jesus, quoting Isaiah 3:22, announces His earthly ministry.
Luke 4:18Jesus' ministry did not include going to hell and preaching. The word translated "captives" literally means "prisoners of war."
(18) The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised,
But very happy when they saw Jesus. The following is an artwork depicting Jesus' rescue of Adam in hades.Boy, those OT saints must have been a miserable lot.
Salvation from eternal death lies in faith in Jesus and in nothing else. So, then, Jesus has everything to do with keeping us from eternal death.
Men told you which books were inspired; John said there isn't enough to contain what the Redeemer said.
Yet, canonicity has been a driving force in determining His Word - again, books put together by men.
No man has authority over me, and I am entitled to see ALL text and rightly judge what is the truth with my own God given mind and spirit.
Didn't answer my question, did you? Sure anybody can believe anything they want that doesn't make it scripture.
.....The LDS have added a whole book to the Bible and called it scripture. You going to consider those scripture too? God inspired the prophets and disciples to write the scripture and I'm sure He ensured that we have the scripture in the Bible He intended to be in the canon.
Probably not. It appears they were in comfort.
“The time came when the beggar died and the angels carried him to Abraham’s side. The rich man also died and was buried. In Hades, where he was in torment, he looked up and saw Abraham far away, with Lazarus by his side.
...
“But Abraham replied, ‘Son, remember that in your lifetime you received your good things, while Lazarus received bad things, but now he is comforted here and you are in agony. -- Luke 16
But very happy when they saw Jesus. The following is an artwork depicting Jesus' rescue of Adam in hades.
How can someone see another person if they are in the grave, without being resurrected?
But very happy when they saw Jesus. The following is an artwork depicting Jesus' rescue of Adam in hades.
I believe it's because (after much research) I've come to the conclusion that there is no hell.Okay, this is one that vexes me.
If the price of sin is either eternal death, or eternal suffering in the lake of fire (depending on which interpretation you go with), and Jesus paid the full price of sin, why then is Jesus not either:
1) eternally dead
2) waiting to go into the lake of fire for all eternity
If the price of sin is either eternal death, or eternal suffering in the lake of fire (as I said, depending on which interpretation you go with), and Jesus paid the FULL price of sin, he should then be in one of those two conditions.
The only reason I can think that he would not be in one of those conditions is if:
a) he did not pay the full price of sin but was let off part of the bill (cue track playing opening chords of O Fortuna)
b) The Father chooses to end the sentence of sin prematurely (which opens the gates to a potential universalism as regards salvation - ie: all end up being saved in the end)
It CANNOT be that Jesus gets a reduced sentence on account of being sinless, as that would mean he does not pay the FULL price of sin.
Thoughts?
He chose Himself so that no other human would/could ever take the place of all mankind to remit their sins.Why do you think God chose a human sacrifice, which is an abomination to God, to save mankind?
Read the Bible passage?How was Lazarus comforted if he wasn't resurrected? How was the rich man in agony while in the grave?
You can find it in Leviticus, read it. (16 I think) The scape goat wasn't even killed. At the same time though a sin offering was also made.But the scape goat wasn't crucified. In fact, none of the sacrificial animals were crucified.
Okay, this is one that vexes me.
If the price of sin is either eternal death, or eternal suffering in the lake of fire (depending on which interpretation you go with), and Jesus paid the full price of sin, why then is Jesus not either:
1) eternally dead
2) waiting to go into the lake of fire for all eternity
If the price of sin is either eternal death, or eternal suffering in the lake of fire (as I said, depending on which interpretation you go with), and Jesus paid the FULL price of sin, he should then be in one of those two conditions.
The only reason I can think that he would not be in one of those conditions is if:
a) he did not pay the full price of sin but was let off part of the bill (cue track playing opening chords of O Fortuna)
b) The Father chooses to end the sentence of sin prematurely (which opens the gates to a potential universalism as regards salvation - ie: all end up being saved in the end)
It CANNOT be that Jesus gets a reduced sentence on account of being sinless, as that would mean he does not pay the FULL price of sin.
Thoughts?
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