prodromos said:
The Council in Trullo, otherwise known as the Quinisext council (completing the 5th and 6th councils) produced canons stating that a man who had been remarried could not be ordained and also that if someone remarried after a divorce, they were required to do penance for six years. Most of the canons were a restatement of canons received from the earlier councils.
Canon III
Canon LXXXVII
And? I don't understand what you are attempting to assert here . . . how does it apply to what we are talking about?
Just because some of the canons were a restatmetn of canons received from earlier councils, how does htis make the issue of remarriage being subject to the law of the Emperor rather than Chuch Teaching valid?
Here is some advice given by Pope Gregory II to St Boniface in 726.
14 Pope Gregory II Replies to Questions Put by Boniface (22 November 726)As to what a man shall do if his wife is unable through illness to allow him his marital rights, it would be better if he remained apart and practised continence. But since this is practicable only in the case of men of high ideals, the best course if he is unable to be continent would be for him to marry. Nevertheless, he should continue to support the woman who is sick, unless she has contracted the disease through her own fault.
All of this is well before the schism of 1054 and since Rome did not protest those canons and indeed a pope has advised a 2nd marriage, according to Catholic ecclesiology and history all of this was under the authority of the pope.
John
John . .this also greatly dissappoints . . . . .
You have
no context here . . the letter which you are quoting from provides no context either. . . . Where is the original question from St Boniface to which this is responding?
This is presented it here as if it is to be understood in the context of a scarmental marriage between baptized believers . . . for that is the only context that would have direct bearing on anything we have been saying.
Yet, this is only an assumption for there is NOTHING in the answer itself which suggests this. . . .
This was an answer given to a
MISSIONARY. . . . . This was from a
MISSIONARY letter to St Boniface. That is a bit of context that is necessary, wouldn't you agree?
How do you know he is not speaking regarding a situation as it arises between those who
are not within the Church, who are
unbelievers?
How do you know he is not speaking regarding a situation as it arises between those where one partner of the mariage has converted and become a believer, yet their spouse is still an unbeliever ?
Presenting the quote stripped of what context is available, and as though it proves in some way that the West had similara views (for that is the purpose of your posting this) when you can't prove what the context of the response actually is in support of such use of it here,
is extremely WEAK evidence for your case and cannot legitimately be used as evidence to support your position if you cannot prove that it is referring to what should happen when such circumstances arise between spouses who participate in a sacramentally valid marriage between two baptized believers.
Since you can't provide such evidence, use of this of this quote in this manner is highly fallacious.
Peace to all