
That was why I asked it
Well, what makes MtEve the mother of us all, wherever or whenever she existed, is that her genes have been inherited by all of us. Why would the same answer not work for the original Eve?
A number of reasons really, The way proposed natural selection by evolutionists requires that the wolf catches the sheep with short legs, the more advanced takes advantage over the less advantaged and kills them off in order to improve their survival rate.
A more advanced hominid encountering less advanced hominids and competing for food etc would result in wars where the more advanced killed off the less advanced.
Several problems with this. First, the wolf-sheep scenario only works when there is a predator-prey relationship. But in a predator-prey relationship, usually the predator and prey are of different species. Humans have hunted some prey to extinction or near extinction (mammoths, moas), but except in some instances of cannabalism, they have not systematically preyed on other humans. Also the wolf is not competing with the sheep, but with other predators, especially other wolves. But he doesn't attack other wolves to do that.
Further, predator-prey is not the only relationship among species. In fact, it is largely limited to animals, but evolution applies to all forms of life. Militant interactions are not features of the evolution of trees or yeasts. So they are not necessary to phasing out one species in favour of another. It is true that competition over food might cause violent conflict, but extinction does not imply that a species was starved out.
The basic misconception here is that the replacement of one species by another requires some sort of conflict and suffering inflicted on one by the other. It does not. The transition need not involve any violence or suffering at all.
To prevent mixing of DNA (men breeding with lower hominid woman) thus utterly destroying the mtEve model all the while passing on more advanced hominid genes because Eve was after the previous Hominid distributions according to the model, advanced hominid populations had to kill off less advanced without interbreeding. A peaceable accord between advanced and sub hominid populations would have inevitably resulted in interbreeding.
Did you get the "trees not ladders" diagram I posted earlier? The whole concept of "higher" "lower" "more or less advanced" "sub-human" etc. just has no place in evolutionary thinking.
In any case, H. sapiens men breeding with other hominid females would not destroy the MtEve model. Since, by definition, she is not the first woman, she could still be a woman in Africa about 60,000 years ago. (or any other time and place the evidence supports).
You are still assuming that evolutionary competition and extinction require some sort of violence, and that is not the case, even with a species as prone to violence as humans.
The abundance of food could not have caused environmental starvation of older hominid populations when newer ones came through.
New Disease could account for some older hominid deaths but not all
True, but we don't need to call on either starvation or disease to account for the extinction of other hominid species. They may have been factors in some instances, but they need not have been factors at all.
If older hominid are allowed to continue along the evolutionary path one could rightfully assume they would be around today in some hominid form.
Unless of course they were all wiped out by a catastrophe like a global flood
Again, you are assuming extinction requires some sort of violence, if not of one species against another, of nature against the species. No, extinction does not require violence or suffering imposed on the species dying out.
I said no mixing was a reasonable but not a proveable hypothesis. However
As above, if modern hominid male bred with woman lower hominid thus introducing the lower woman hominid mtDNA into the upper hominid population and this was then transmitted through populations at what point this could have happened no-one knows so for all the theory postulates it could have happened at any point in history thus negating the mtEve model.
If we were talking about nuclear DNA that might be correct (except for the nonsense about "lower" hominids), but we are talking about mitochondrial DNA. mtDNA is passed on uniquely through the female line. So if an H.sapiens man had children by a non-sapiens woman, all her children would have her non-sapiens mtDNA. None of it would be mixed with his. Her sons would not pass it on to any of their children; their children would get their mtDNA from their mates. Her daughters would pass it on to all their children. So you would be able in every generation to distinguish the non-sapiens mtDNA from the sapiens DNA.
Now, all the evidence for interbreeding among sapiens and non-sapiens hominids (sapiens and neanderthalensis) that I have heard of involves only nuclear DNA. When studies were made of mtDNA the sapiens and neanderthal mtDNA were different enough that for a while it was thought there had never been interbreeding between the two species. We do not have, so far as is known, any human mtDNA lineage derived from non-sapiens sources.
And the mtEve model is based only on mtDNA lineages, not the complete human genome.
The mtDNA study of African Eve, as well as other aspects of molecular genetics, deals with mutations in the DNA nucleotides. Perhaps we could be forgiven for asking: "When an evolutionist looks at human DNA nucleotides, how does he know which ones are the result of mutations and which ones have remained unchanged?" Obviously, to answer that question he must know what the original or ancient sequences were.
Well, the actual question the geneticist poses is "in which lineage did the mutation occur?" Since they are working on the assumption that the species being studied did have a common ancestor, any difference between the two species is mutation. But since mutations have been accumulating in both groups, it is not immediately obvious which is the original and which is the changed sequence. If one finds a stretch of DNA in one lineage which does not exist in the other, does that mean it was added to one genome or lost from the other? As you say, we don't actually have the original ancestral genome to compare them with.
So it is an interesting puzzle, but not a hopeless one. In some ways it is like the puzzles in linguistics as linguists try to determine what the common roots of a language family are and how they were changed in different areas, even though many of these changes occurred before there were any written records.
Since only God is omniscient, how does the evolutionist get the information regarding those sequences which he believes existed millions of years ago? He uses as his guide the DNA of the chimpanzee. In other words, the studies that seek to prove that human DNA evolved from chimp DNA start with the assumption that chimp DNA represents the original condition (or close to it) from which human DNA diverged.
No, that is incorrect. It is understood that chimp DNA has also been changing since the time of the common ancestor and is no more like that of the common ancestor than human DNA is. In fact, I recently saw a news report that said there may have been more changes in DNA of the chimp lineage since the last common ancestor than in DNA in the human lineage. It is definitely not the case that any study is seeking to prove that human DNA evolved from chimp DNA. (Trees, not ladders, remember).
The real mtEve in fact could be any time in history given scientists in reality don't know what she started with as mtDNA, they just assume it was Ape and as such analogous of today.
One of the interesting things about mtEve is that she is not necessarily the same person from one generation to another.
Let me give a brief illustration with a smaller group. When I was a child, I once met one of my great-aunts, sister to my grandmother. Later I learned my grandmother also had another living sister and both of her sisters had children (my mother's first cousins). Their children, if they had any would be my second cousins. If we were to identify the last common ancestor of all these women, myself, my mother, my grandmother, my grandmother's sisters and their children down to my generation, it would be my great grandmother--the one woman would was the ancestor of all the children in this extended family in my generation. But suppose on of my great-aunts had never married. So she had no children in my generation. Still my great-grandmother would be the last common ancestor of myself, my siblings, my first cousins and the grandchildren of the one great-aunt that did marry.
Ah, but now suppose that even though she married and had two children, she had no grandchildren. Now the only descendants of my great-grandmother in my generation are my grandmother's children. One line petered out when one great-aunt had no children, the other a generation later when the other great-aunt had no grandchildren. But now my great-grandmother is no longer the most recent common ancestor in the family. She is still an ancestor of course, but not the most recent common ancestor. That title now goes to my grandmother. She is likely to hold that for some time as she had nine children and only one of them died without issue. But if, at some time in the future, seven of the remaining lines died out, then the most recent common ancestor of the remaining line would be whichever sibling in my mother's generation still has living descendants.
On a large-scale, the same applies to mtEve. She is the one woman of her generation who is an ancestor of all living humans. But in every generation some lineages die out. Suppose she had five or six children. If at some point the lineage from one of them dies out, then all living humans are descended from only four or five people instead of five or six. And if eventually, all but one of those lineages disappear, then it will be one of her children or even great-grandchildren who will then be the mtEve of all living human beings.
I also understand that the model presents that African mtDNA is more mutated than non African mtDNA, however this is still based on circular reasoning where by they are using Ape mtDNA as the reference point. This means she could have come from anywhere.
No, this is also incorrect. They are not comparing human DNA to non-human DNA here. What they are doing is considering how many different alleles of a gene exist at one locus on a chromosome. Over time, in any stable population, genes can come to exist in many variant forms. Some genes have hundreds of slightly different forms called alleles. They all do the same thing, but they have somewhat different sequences. (It is rather like British and American English having the same word but with different spellings like "tire" and "tyre" or "color" and "colour". Even when there are hundreds of these different alleles for one locus in the population, each individual can only have two of them. So, if a small group breaks off from the main population and goes its separate way (like a group leaving Africa and heading along the coast down to India), it carries only a small sample of all the alleles in the population left behind. In time it acquires (through mutation) new alleles of its own. But the population it left behind is also still acquiring new alleles of its own. So the older population will usually have more genetic variation than a new separated population even after many generations. This can go on many times over the generations. A tiny group that settled on Pitcairn Island only two centuries ago has very few genetic differences. There hasn't been enough time for many new alleles to appear.
So there is no need to bring in any comparison with non-human hominids. What the geneticists have learned is that there is far more natural variation in African populations than in non-African populations. Also the further away from Africa, the less the variation. This suggests that Africa has the oldest continuing human population, with others being founded at later times. And one doesn't need to draw non-humans into the comparison at all.
Interestingly, this has a parallel in human language. A recent news report (I'll try to find this one) tells of the discovery that African languages have more phonemes (units of sound, like a single vowel or consonant) than most non-African languages. Also, the further away a population is from Africa, the more phonemes have disappeared from their language. Hawaiian apparently has the fewest phonemes of modern human languages. So in this instance cultural evolution has paralleled biological evolution in humans.
Where else in science is it an allowable procedure to assume your conclusions in order to backup your conclusions and in fact model your entire model upon these assumed conclusions?
Everywhere. It is basic scientific method to:
a) draw up a hypothetical explanation of some observations
b) assume provisionally that it is true
c) deduce what the consequences must be if it is true
d) set up an experiment or series of observations to see if the consequences exist in reality.
If the consequences do exist, then the hypothesis is tentatively accepted as true; but is still subject to further testing.
This alongside the mtEve model contradicting the fossil record, it does beg the question, what is reliable, DNA or fossils, if it's DNA the fossil recored is all up the tree

if it's fossils DNA as a model is all up the tree
Ah, one of the most fascinating phylogenetic questions of our time. However, it is not a matter of either being "all up the tree". There is sufficient consistency between the two to convince scientists that current anomalies are mostly a matter of insufficient data. And molecular data have solved many questions that could not be solved from fossils alone.
because we never evolved from chimps.
Right, we did not. We only share a common ancestor with them. We evolved from that ancestor (as did many other species).