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Why do we consistently misuse / overuse the word “anointing”?

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JimB

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Well, gh? I know you do not hold that the Bible is the final authority in all matter of faith and doctrine (although I am sure your pastor and your church does) and since that leaves only (shudder!) you as the final authority, I suppose you don’t have, or care to have, a scripture for what you believe. You just hatch these ideas out of your head, I suppose?

~Jim

 
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qh93536

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Jim M said:
Well, gh? I know you do not hold that the Bible is the final authority in all matter of faith and doctrine (although I am sure your pastor and your church does) and since that leaves only (shudder!) you as the final authority, I suppose you don’t have, or care to have, a scripture for what you believe. You just hatch these ideas out of your head, I suppose?

~Jim

No, they are not just hatched out of my head. Jim, I don't care how many theology degrees you have. I don't care how many scriptures you can quote. I don't care how many years you have been studying scripture. I don't care how old you are. I don't care how many years you have been a pastor. NONE OF THOSE THINGS IMPRESS GOD! What does impress God is a spiritually mature relationship with him, that will lead you into a realm where you become like him.

It takes more than the ability to read to understand God and his ways. It takes wisdom and common sense.

Isn't it about time that you continued your growth instead of being stuck where you are at?
 
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qh93536

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Jim M said:
But you have to have a scriptural basis for this or it is just a doctrine of men. Can you show me in the Bible where this is taught? Personally, I do not find anywhere that there is such a thing as a “consecrated” Christian. The best I can do is to say that a Christian is consecrated (set aside for God at the time of his anointing/sanctification, i.e. at the time he is saved, The NT teaches that it is only Christ (Heb. 7.28) and the Christian church (Heb. 10.20) that are “consecrated” (these are the only two places in the KJV/NKJV where the word is used in the NT).

~Jim

Again, You are blinded because you rely on scripture for everything when scripture does not address everything.

1 Corinthians 2
14But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are
foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.
15But he that is spiritual judgeth all things, yet he himself is judged of no man.
1 Corinthians 3
1And I, brethren, could not speak unto you as unto spiritual, but as unto carnal,
even as unto babes in Christ.
2I have fed you with milk, and not with meat: for hitherto ye were not able to bear
it, neither yet now are ye able.
3For ye are yet carnal: for whereas there is among you envying, and strife, and
divisions, are ye not carnal, and walk as men?
 
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JimB

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qh93536 said:
Again, You are blinded because you rely on scripture for everything when scripture does not address everything.

1 Corinthians 2
14But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are
foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.
15But he that is spiritual judgeth all things, yet he himself is judged of no man.
1 Corinthians 3
1And I, brethren, could not speak unto you as unto spiritual, but as unto carnal,
even as unto babes in Christ.
2I have fed you with milk, and not with meat: for hitherto ye were not able to bear
it, neither yet now are ye able.
3For ye are yet carnal: for whereas there is among you envying, and strife, and
divisions, are ye not carnal, and walk as men?
So, you are quoting scripture to prove you do not have to rely on scripture. What, exactly, do you believe? :scratch:

~Jim

 
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New_Wineskin

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Jim M said:
So, you are quoting scripture to prove you do not have to rely on scripture. What, exactly, do you believe? :scratch:

~Jim

If someone only spoke English and thought that it was the only language needed or that one was permitted to use , a person who believed otherwise would be forced to use English if they wished to communicate to such a person . It wouldn't mean that they were wishy-washy nor that they considered that English was useless or unimportant .
 
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JimB

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New_Wineskin said:
If someone only spoke English and thought that it was the only language needed or that one was permitted to use , a person who believed otherwise would be forced to use English if they wished to communicate to such a person . It wouldn't mean that they were wishy-washy nor that they considered that English was useless or unimportant .
Nice try, NW. Actually, though, isn’t it disingenuous for someone to say, in one breath …
gh93536 said:
Again, You are blinded because you rely on scripture for everything when scripture does not address everything.

… and in the next, rely on discredited scripture in order to prove a point by saying …
gh93536 said:
1 Corinthians 2
gh93536 said:

14But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are
foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.
15But he that is spiritual judgeth all things, yet he himself is judged of no man.
1 Corinthians 3
1And I, brethren, could not speak unto you as unto spiritual, but as unto carnal,
even as unto babes in Christ.
2I have fed you with milk, and not with meat: for hitherto ye were not able to bear
it, neither yet now are ye able.
3For ye are yet carnal: for whereas there is among you envying, and strife, and
divisions, are ye not carnal, and walk as men?
Isn’t this a ‘trumpet giving an uncertain sound’, that Paul mentioned, and the ‘double-mindedness’ and 'bitter and sweet water coming out of the same fountain’ that James spoke about? It’s talking out both sides of your mouth, if you ask me.

Apparently, Gh feels it is okay to just make up words and terms that are contrary to the way the Bible uses them (see OP) and then hope everyone just automatically knows what we mean when we use them. There has to be a standard for our faith and belief (i.e., Scripture) or else we, like the Gnostics of old, become Scripture unto ourself, make up our own rules as we go along, and get locked in endless debates over words, becoming “proud, knowing nothing, but is obsessed with disputes and arguments over words” (see 1 Timothy 6.3-5 – but of course you would have to rely on scripture to accept this and not overrule or disannul it by your own wiser choice of words or definition).

Anyhow, this discussion is about the misuse/overuse of the word “anointing” among Pentecostal/Charismatics when we ascribe it to some and not to others. I say it is not just some special, unique Christians who are anointed – all Christians are anointed when they are sealed by the Holy Spirit (see OP).

~Jim
 
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New_Wineskin

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Hey , Jim

Jim M said:
Nice try, NW. Actually, though, isn’t it disingenuous for someone to say, in one breath …
>>>Again, You are blinded because you rely on scripture for everything when scripture does not address everything.
<<<


&#8230; and in the next, rely on discredited scripture in order to prove a point by saying &#8230;


That quote does not discredit scripture . Nor does it tear down the Scriptures in any way . From the quote that you gave , there is no mention of not relying on the Scriptures but to not rely on them for *everything* . The next quote was to show from where the poster was coming .

Paul quotes the Law as not bringing righteousness and even that certain things in the Law not to be done but he does not discredit the Law . He even quotes the Law for certain suggestions ( that some would consider "commands" ) .

I can't get into the poster's head to say that they are disingenuous or hypocritical . I don't consider Paul to be such ( most of the time , I don't consider him to be , anyway ) .

Isn&#8217;t this a &#8216;trumpet giving an uncertain sound&#8217;, that Paul mentioned, and the &#8216;double-mindedness&#8217; and 'bitter and sweet water coming out of the same fountain&#8217; that James spoke about? It&#8217;s talking out both sides of your mouth, if you ask me.

I suppose that I understand why you think that . I have agreed with both of you on the same topic . I feel the same way when people quote passages as if I am to obey them when I know of a few passages that absolutely none obey or desire to obey . Many of these same people say that we are not under the Law but quote the Scriptures in the same way as those whom Paul attempted to refute .

Apparently, Gh feels it is okay to just make up words and terms that are contrary to the way the Bible uses them (see OP) and then hope everyone just automatically knows what we mean when we use them. There has to be a standard for our faith and belief (i.e., Scripture) or else we, like the Gnostics of old, become Scripture unto ourself, make up our own rules as we go along, and get locked in endless debates over words, becoming &#8220;proud, knowing nothing, but is obsessed with disputes and arguments over words&#8221; (see 1 Timothy 6.3-5 &#8211; but of course you would have to rely on scripture to accept this and not overrule or disannul it by your own wiser choice of words or definition).

Anyhow, this discussion is about the misuse/overuse of the word &#8220;anointing&#8221; among Pentecostal/Charismatics when we ascribe it to some and not to others. I say it is not just some special, unique Christians who are anointed &#8211; all Christians are anointed when they are sealed by the Holy Spirit (see OP).

~Jim

Well , I will leave you and GH to your disagreement . As you know , I agree with you that all believers are annointed and I agree that the Scriptures indicate that . I also agree with GH regarding the idea of relying on the Scriptures ( or lack of relying ) .

My post was simply to say that one can say that the Scriptures are not needed or do not include everything needed but still consider them truthful and valuable . It seems that you think that there was something else going on with GH . And , you may be correct - I don't know .
 
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