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Why did Jesus not say "I am God" in the gospels?

Fireinfolding

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You're right. Jesus never did say "I am God". But I think the closest he came to uttering the words is in John 10:30, in which he stated "I and My Father are one". (NKJV) He claimed to be equal with God. That was enough to make the Jews plan to kill Him.

When he said he and the Father are one he also prayed the following

John 17:22 ... "that they may be one, even as we are one"

If the first was the closest thing to stating he was God there in respects to using the word oneness between him and the Father would mean that when he prayed the same oneness for them that would make them God too wouldn't it?

The jews accusing him saying God was his Father ad thus making him equal to God in doing so here

John 5:18 Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal with God.

Can also be met with what Jesus says about His Father here

John 14:28 Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I.
 
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I am not talking about the Good Shepherd. I am talking about two strings of texts.

S1 = S2?
You can talk about 2 strings of text all you want, but Jesus spoke only in parables, so that certain people would get Him, while others would not. If you don't get the parable of the Good Shepherd then take this matter up with Christ. That's what He wants you to do anyway.
 
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I am not talking about the Good Shepherd. I am talking about two strings of texts.

S1 = S2?
Again, you can talk about two strings of texts all you want, but Jesus spoke only in parables, so that certain people would get Him while others would not (Matthew 13:34). If you can't receive the parable of the Good Shepherd then take the matter up with Christ. This is what He wants us to do anyway (prayerfully).
 
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Fireinfolding

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Let string G1 = "I am God".

Why did Jesus not say G1 in the Gospel?
John 7:16 Jesus answered them, and said, My doctrine is not mine, but his that sent me.

John 7:17 If any man will do his will, he shall know of the doctrine, whether it be of God, or whether I speak of myself.

John 12:49 For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak. (See Deut 18:18)

Jesus' God made him Lord and Christ,

Acts 2:36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.

Unto us it says,

1 Cr 8:6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.
 
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John 7:16 Jesus answered them, and said, My doctrine is not mine, but his that sent me.

John 7:17 If any man will do his will, he shall know of the doctrine, whether it be of God, or whether I speak of myself.

John 12:49 For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak. (See Deut 18:18)

Jesus' God made him Lord and Christ,

Acts 2:36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.

Unto us it says,

1 Cr 8:6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.
What's with all these tired old useless unitarian, misquoted and misunderstood texts denying the Scripturally attested Divinity of the Word of God, Christ?
 
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Fireinfolding

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What's with all these tired old useless unitarian, misquoted and misunderstood texts denying the Scripturally attested Divinity of the Word of God, Christ?
Interesting response
 
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Fireinfolding

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John 7:16 Jesus answered them, and said, My doctrine is not mine, but his that sent me.

Jesus just said his doctrine was not his, next verse...
John 7:17 If any man will do his will, he shall know of the doctrine, whether it be of God, or whether I speak of myself.

His doctrine is either of God or himself but in verse 16 he clarified that his doctrine was not his, so the doctrine of Christ is his God's doctrine

John 12:49 For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak. (See Deut 18:18)
John 12:49 Jesus Christ spoke by commandment just as is spoken of in Deut 18:18 God said to Moses, " I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him. (See Acts 3:22 & 7:37) compare with Deut 18:19 with John 12:48

Jesus' God made him Lord and Christ,

Acts 2:36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.

The Apostles just confirming that God made Jesus both Lord and Christ, and that has never changed
Unto us it says,

1 Cr 8:6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.
And so the Father and God of our Lord Jesus is our Father and God even as Jesus said,

John 20:17 I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.

The Spirit of adoption is by Christ unto the Father by the which we cry Abba Father.

I dont see how these texts are tired or useless or out of context by affirming the truth of them by posting them.
 
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tonychanyt

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You can talk about 2 strings of text all you want, but Jesus spoke only in parables, so that certain people would get Him, while others would not. If you don't get the parable of the Good Shepherd then take this matter up with Christ. That's what He wants you to do anyway.
Sure. That's a different topic. The issue in this thread is not about the Good Shepherd. If you wish to discuss the Good Sheperd, feel free to start another thread.

Is S1 = S2? That's my question here. This is the 3rd time I am asking. Don't be sidetracked by other issues.
 
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tonychanyt

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John 7:16 Jesus answered them, and said, My doctrine is not mine, but his that sent me.

John 7:17 If any man will do his will, he shall know of the doctrine, whether it be of God, or whether I speak of myself.

John 12:49 For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak. (See Deut 18:18)

Jesus' God made him Lord and Christ,

Acts 2:36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.

Unto us it says,

1 Cr 8:6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.
So, why did Jesus not say G1 in the Gospel?
 
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Fireinfolding

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So, why did Jesus not say G1 in the Gospel?

The Father which sent him gave him a commandment concerning what he should say and what he should speak, and that wasn't given him to say aparently.

It is God as is shown in Psalm 45:6 Who adresses the Son of God as God as is pointed out in Hebrews 1:8 which is also quoting from that Psalm

Psalm 45:6 Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: the sceptre of thy kingdom is a right sceptre.

Psalm 45:7 Thou lovest righteousness, and hatest wickedness: therefore God, thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.
 
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Sure. That's a different topic. The issue in this thread is not about the Good Shepherd. If you wish to discuss the Good Sheperd, feel free to start another thread.

Is S1 = S2? That's my question here. This is the 3rd time I am asking. Don't be sidetracked by other issues.
The nature of the question you're asking is foreign to the nature and method of the Word of God, and so the answer you're seeking you will not find in the Word of God.
 
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Fireinfolding

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First of all, you have absolutely no way of knowing whether or not Jesus uttered the exact phrase, "I am God" (not in English of course, but in Greek, Hebrew, or Aramaic) because the fact that it is not recorded in the Bible does not mean He didn't say it.

30 And truly Jesus did many other signs in the presence of His disciples, which are not written in this book; 31 but these are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that believing you may have life in His name. (Jn 20:30–31)​

25 And there are also many other things that Jesus did, which if they were written one by one, I suppose that even the world itself could not contain the books that would be written. Amen. (Jn 21:25)​
Just on the above verses, we know Jesus DID many other signs in the presense of his disciples, and many other things besides as you pointed out, even as his brethren (who did not believe) also stated, " For there is no man that DOETH any thing in secret, and he himself seeketh to be known openly. If thou do these things, shew thyself to the world (John 7:4). So he did things in secret.

However, when it come to what Jesus spake he did say, I spake openly to the world; I ever taught in the synagogue, and in the temple, whither the Jews always resort; and in secret have I said nothing. (John 18:20)
 
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tonychanyt

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The nature of the question you're asking is foreign to the nature and method of the Word of God, and so the answer you're seeking you will not find in the Word of God.
Did you read my OP? I already gave an answer there. For your convenience, here it is:

Let string G1 = "I am God".

Why did Jesus not say G1 in the Gospel?

Jesus knew he was God but decided not to proclaim it at the time. Why?

Paul explained in Philippians 2:
5 Have this mind among yourselves, which is yours in Christ Jesus,
He gave us his example of servant humility.
6 who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped, 7 but emptied himself, by taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men. 8 And being found in human form, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.
 
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Did you read my OP? I already gave an answer there. For your convenience, here it is:

Let string G1 = "I am God".

Why did Jesus not say G1 in the Gospel?

Jesus knew he was God but decided not to proclaim it at the time. Why?

Paul explained in Philippians 2:

He gave us his example of servant humility.
Well yes, the role of man in the covenant relationship with God is that of a servant. More than giving us His example, He was fulfilling in His humanity what Adam and his descendants did not fulfill.
 
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prodromos

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Please show the original Greek or Aramaic.
ειπεν αυτοις ο ιησους αμην αμην λεγω υμιν πριν αβρααμ γενεσθαι εγω ειμι
 
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tonychanyt

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ειπεν αυτοις ο ιησους αμην αμην λεγω υμιν πριν αβρααμ γενεσθαι εγω ειμι
Can you highlight the Greek string corresponding to the English "I am God"?
 
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prodromos

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Can you highlight the Greek string corresponding to the English "I am God"?
εγω ειμι - I am
This is the response God gave Moses when he asked who he should tell the Israelites was sending him to them. The Jews immediately understood what Jesus was saying.
 
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