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Why Christians should reject Partial Preterism

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mkgal1

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sovereigngrace

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But you have argued that the NHNE are here now. That is insane. You have argued that the resurrection of the just and the unjust occurred and 70AD. This is absurd!

When discussing this with you previously, you couldn't even tell me what the resurrection of the unjust was. You were giving me about three different contradictory definitions at the one time.

When I pushed you on what "the age to come" refers to, you made it our current age here now, and at other times it pertains to the intermediate state, and at other times the eternal state. This is utter confusion.
 
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mkgal1

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In Partial Preterist theology the First Advent and the Second Advent take back stage to their obsession with 70AD. It is all about 70AD! It is all they want to talk about
There are plenty of other things I'd wish to talk about, if given the chance (but others seem to hone in on this one detail and want to talk about nothing else but this). So I question where the actual obsession is.
.
 
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mkgal1

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But you have argued that the NHNE are here now. That is insane. You have argued that the resurrection of the just and the unjust occurred and 70AD. This is absurd!
Different from your beliefs =/= "insane" or "absurd".

Try a little charity in your posting.
 
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mkgal1

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When I pushed you on what "the age to come" refers to, you made it our current age here now, and at other times it pertains to the intermediate state, and at other times the eternal state. This is utter confusion.
"Pushed you" is certainly an accurate description. It's "confusion" because you're attempting to see my beliefs through your paradigm. That won't work.
 
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DavidPT

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There are not two tribs in the Discourse though. There is only one, and like EWQ has pointed out with Mat 24:29-31, that alone proves the trib in question is not meaning 70 AD.

Let's look at some of the texts involved again.

Matthew 24:15 When ye therefore shall see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel the prophet, stand in the holy place, (whoso readeth, let him understand: )
16 Then let them which be in Judaea flee into the mountains:
17 Let him which is on the housetop not come down to take any thing out of his house:
18 Neither let him which is in the field return back to take his clothes.
19 And woe unto them that are with child, and to them that give suck in those days!
20 But pray ye that your flight be not in the winter, neither on the sabbath day:
21 For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be.
22 And except those days should be shortened, there should no flesh be saved: but for the elect's sake those days shall be shortened.

Matthew 24:29 Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken:
30 And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.
31 And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.

Notice what I have underlined here. Seriously, how can the trib of those days in verse 29 not be meaning the same trib of those days in verse 21 and 22? Even though I disagree with Preterists who see nothing but first century events in the Discourse, at least they are not, like you are, inventing a 2nd trib that is not even found in the texts.

If there is only one trib of those days in view, and that if verse 21 and 22 are supposed to be meaning 70 AD, but that verse 29 is supposed to be meaning some 2000 years later, well 2000 years is hardly immediately after in that case. Yet you indicated there are two tribs. So show where they are in Matthew 24.


The incorrect way to understand verses 21-22 and 29-31---All of this was fulfilled in the first century.

The incorrect way to understand verses 21-22 and 29-31---Some of this was fulfilled in the first century. Some of it is fulfilled some 2000 years later.

The correct way to understand verses 21-22 and 29-31---All of it is fulfilled in the end of this age leading up to the 2nd coming.
 
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mkgal1

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What that shows is a way that people draw their conclusions based on presumption and have never considered other options.

Yes.....I'll admit to a *healthy* reliance upon others that have done their scholarly work and devoted decades to the study of this topic (but I also rely on the Holy Spirit to guide me in determining what's in alignment with God's nature). I suspect you meant UNhealthy......but I don't see anything wrong with learning through others. The Body of Christ is about community - we're not meant to be alone (remember Genesis?).
 
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AvisG

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When one steps back from the obsessive and doomed-to-failure approach of trying to make sense of the convoluted end-times passages in Mark, Matthew and Luke, as well as Revelation as a whole, I don't think it's difficult to understand what was going on.

Yes, I'm sure Jesus did speak of a future return and the importance of always being ready. But the historical reality is that Mark, Matthew and Luke were all written during or within a reasonable time after the Neronian persecution and the fall of the temple. These were cataclysmic events that certainly would have appeared like the end times (or the ushering in of the end times) to Christians and Jews alike. By far the most plausible explanation is that these events have been inserted into Jesus' mouth in a somewhat veiled way because he obviously would have been speaking some 30-40 years before the events themselves. They are a pseudo-Jesus speaking to the people (the "generation") who have experienced the Neronian persecution and the fall of the temple and who continue to be persecuted as the Gospels and Revelation are circulating.

There is no question that the Gospel writers, Paul, the author of Revelation and presumably all first century Christians understandably thought the end was imminent. They were simply wrong. It's far less clear that Jesus was wrong, because I strongly doubt he made the "this generation shall not pass away" statement at all. By far the most reasonable explanation is that this is a later insertion for the reasons set forth above.

The end-times passages are a convoluted mess because they overlay what was happening at the time they were written on top of what Jesus actually said during his ministry. Yes, there will be a Second Coming at some entirely unknown and unpredictable future date and we should all be ready at every moment, but all the rest can be plausibly explained only by the preterist position. The end-times stuff that dominates the evangelical airwaves is just nonsense, simple as that.

All just my humble opinion and informed $0.02 worth, mind you.
 
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Handmaid for Jesus

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Excuse me?? Are you saying that Lord Jesus did not say something that is written that He said? If so, how did you determine that? What is your plumb line (if you know what a plumb line is )?
Yes, there will be a Second Coming at some entirely unknown and unpredictable future date and we should all be ready at every moment,

Umm. This describes imminence.
 
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DavidPT

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I don't doubt He actually said that. So I doubt it was later added. In context, it of course doesn't make sense if He was meaning the generation at that time in the first century. Obviously then, at least to some of us, He wasn't meaning those living at that time when He spoke those words. All of the verses surrounding that verse, none of it involves first century events, the fact His 2nd coming never occurred in the 1st century.


Matthew 24:29 Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken: (context does not involve 1st century events)
30 And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.(context does not involve 1st century events)
31 And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.(context does not involve 1st century events)
32 Now learn a parable of the fig tree; When his branch is yet tender, and putteth forth leaves, ye know that summer is nigh:
33 So likewise ye, when ye shall see all these things, know that it is near, even at the doors.(context does not involve 1st century events)
34 Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled.
35 Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away.(context does not involve 1st century events)
36 But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only.(context does not involve 1st century events)
37 But as the days of Noe were, so shall also the coming of the Son of man be.(context does not involve 1st century events)
38 For as in the days that were before the flood they were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage, until the day that Noe entered into the ark,(context does not involve 1st century events)
39 And knew not until the flood came, and took them all away; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be.(context does not involve 1st century events)


It would be out of context, plus it would make Jesus look like someone very confused if verses 29-33 and verses 35-39 do not involve 1st century events, but that verse 34 does.
 
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DavidPT

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While it's on my mind, can Preterists, meaning those who see the Discourse only involving first century events, remind me what events they take the coming in Matthew 24:39 to be referring to? Can they also remind me whether they take it to be referring to the same coming in Matthew 24:30 or not? And can they also remind me what events they take the tribulation of those days in Matthew 24:29 to be referring to? Depending on the answers, I may or may not have proof they are contradicting the texts involved.
 
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sovereigngrace

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This thread is hilarious. And that's coming from someone on the road to believing in full preterism

You are proving my point for me. That is the very danger I was warning of! Full Preterism is a denial of the faith, and gross heresy.
 
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sovereigngrace

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Futurism and Preterism focus on one part of the picture to the neglect of the other. They take truth to an extreme and neutralize it in the process. They spend their time arguing over whether it is heads or tails, when in fact both make up the one coin. They just need to flip the coin over and see that both carry a measure of truth. Contrary to most Preterists, the Holy Spirit and the NT writers were not fixated on AD70, natural Jerusalem and a redundant temple. They were focused on Christ, and His first and second advents. That was the premise of my initial post, and no Pretereist here is even disputing the thesis so far, just defending it. Sad!
 
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Christian Gedge

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I rated your opening post as 'informative' and I think it deserves a fair and impartial read by all of us. Many of the points made have led me to the same misgivings about Partial Preterism, although I do think you come on a bit strong sometimes.

Now to your key points:


If these observations are true of ALL Partial Preterists then there is indeed a problem. However, in my conversations there are a variety of PP's from neo-full prets to Historicists (a person who sees some fulfillment between AD 70 and the parousia.)

In my own case, I am an Amill-Historicist. Like yourself, Im see Part Preterism eschatology as a step too far into the 'praeter' emphasis. Having said that, I have found some of their historical research to be helpful.

Hey bro's and sisters. Blessings for the new year!
 
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Lost4words

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Jesus said "This generation". Not, the next generation or a future generation! How simple is that?

Some people take the bible literally when they see fit and dont when it goes against what they 'think' scripture is saying.

Revelation 1
The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show to his servants what must soon take place; and he made it known by sending his angel to his servant John, 2 who bore witness to the word of God and to the testimony of Jesus Christ, even to all that he saw. 3 Blessed is he who reads aloud the words of the prophecy, and blessed are those who hear, and who keep what is written therein; for the time is near.

Not millenia away!
 
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You are proving my point. That is the very danger I was warning of! Full Preterism is a denial of the faith , and gross heresy.

If you were a heretic, you wouldn't even know. That's the real kicker.

And anyways, using the word heretic/heresy = -1 point.
 
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mkgal1

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There is no question that the Gospel writers, Paul, the author of Revelation and presumably all first century Christians understandably thought the end was imminent. They were simply wrong.
I believe C.S. Lewis came to this same conclusion (as have many atheists). R.C. Sproul teaches that's exactly why we, as Christians, ought to know our escatology. It colors the entire Gospel story.

The Last Days According to Jesus by R.C. Sproul <---- support for my assertion - not evidence that partial preterism is like a cult as the accusation implied.
 
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