Several times have I asked the following question:
The Bible nowhere sanctions the use of intoxicating wine. is apparently a statement made by EGW.
Now the bible definitely includes alcohol as such.
I cannot see any sense in a bishop not drinking too much grapejuice (that goes for the deacon as well)
Even though it might be highly questionable from todays worldview, King Salomon advised to give wine to the depressed.
King David thank God for wine in one of his psalms
Most strikingly the Lord himself allowed for wine and strong drink to buy using tighes .
This clearly indicates to me that wine was actually sanctioned, with restrictions (we were never meant to be alcoholics) but it was sanctioned, We were actually to have fun from time to time.
Now I was wondering why EGW made that statement, I know some verses can be explained away with the grape juice theory but others difinitely cannot.
I asked the question many times, was EGW in error (there is clearly a discrepancy between her word and the word of God) was she lying and misleading or what? Is her word above the bible? I mean how can I accept that statement and tell other people who might ask me about my being abstinent that the bible actually never sanctioned the use of wine, never. I would clearly make a fool of myself, if people knew the bible well that is...
Sadly no one dared to answer that question, I adressed ECR personally (twice I guess). Is there something that I should know? Did EGW forbid answering uncomfortable questions? Is it as dangerous as discussing the personality of God (this I understand since EGW clearly forbade to touch the subject).
I would just like to know why this is being avoided?
The Bible nowhere sanctions the use of intoxicating wine. is apparently a statement made by EGW.
Now the bible definitely includes alcohol as such.
I cannot see any sense in a bishop not drinking too much grapejuice (that goes for the deacon as well)
Even though it might be highly questionable from todays worldview, King Salomon advised to give wine to the depressed.
King David thank God for wine in one of his psalms
Most strikingly the Lord himself allowed for wine and strong drink to buy using tighes .
This clearly indicates to me that wine was actually sanctioned, with restrictions (we were never meant to be alcoholics) but it was sanctioned, We were actually to have fun from time to time.
Now I was wondering why EGW made that statement, I know some verses can be explained away with the grape juice theory but others difinitely cannot.
I asked the question many times, was EGW in error (there is clearly a discrepancy between her word and the word of God) was she lying and misleading or what? Is her word above the bible? I mean how can I accept that statement and tell other people who might ask me about my being abstinent that the bible actually never sanctioned the use of wine, never. I would clearly make a fool of myself, if people knew the bible well that is...
Sadly no one dared to answer that question, I adressed ECR personally (twice I guess). Is there something that I should know? Did EGW forbid answering uncomfortable questions? Is it as dangerous as discussing the personality of God (this I understand since EGW clearly forbade to touch the subject).
I would just like to know why this is being avoided?