sentipente
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However, quite a bit of what Christians believe is illogical.
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No. If it exists, it exists. If it doesn't, it doesn't. Existance is not subject to location (or timeliness). It can be illusory 'in time', and nonexistance 'out of time', but ultimately it is nonexistant.Is it not possible that free will exists inside of time but not outside of it (as opposed to not existing at all and simply appearing to exist in time) ?
Being outside time, I would imagine.This only holds if "outside of time" is superior to or is above or is more real then being "inside" time. Which mode of being is the real one, being inside time or being outside it?
As I have posted several times, I am not arguing that foreknowledge influences reality. Rather, the possible forms of reality are limited to those that allow foreknowledge to exist.Knowledge in general isnt a causal relation, this includes foreknowledge. Deist actually answered this pretty well about 400 years ago. There is a big difference between predication and causation.
To say the least...However, quite a bit of what Christians believe is illogical.
Care to elaborate?I find that it works the other way around - I find that people who reject God are illogical
I don't think you are discussion logic here. All the things you described are entirely logical. Logic enables us to move from a premise to a conclusion. How can it be illogical for the one who created water and surface tension to walk on it?
No. If it exists, it exists. If it doesn't, it doesn't. Existance is not subject to location (or timeliness). It can be illusory 'in time', and nonexistance 'out of time', but ultimately it is nonexistant.
I find that it works the other way around - I find that people who reject God are illogical
I don't know of a way to demonstrate it to you as you seem to have already decided the outcome, or what would it take to demonstrate it for you?And my point is that I do not see how my 'parameters' are flawed.
yesI'm not quite sure how this follows, but I'll go with it.
Could you elaborate what you mean by 'exists outside of our world'? Are you referring to a being not on our spacetime continuum?
how could something existing outside of our system cause somethig within it to not have free will,Could you explain how an omniscient that 'exists outside of our world' solves the paradox?
Thats why I asked how you were using it, the description given stated that in order to determin locattion of an electron the description statesI used it to show that knowledge regarding an event can alter the nature of the event itself. It was an analogy, nothing more.
If you think I have used it incorrectly, please, show me my flaw.
einsteins relativity.I'm sorry?
quantum mechanics becomes philosophy and is flawed because of it.I don't see you. To recap:
I said: An extention of my scenario is that we cannot deduce the existance of an omniscient simply by noting that we have free will (since it may just be an illusion).
You said: is this not philosophy though?
I said: Yes, I believe it is.
You said: and thats the flaw of quantum mechanics,
I do not see where quantum mechanics comes into it.
I can see the picture I just dont understand that language for describing it.Mathematical language is used to paint a picture of absolute precision (as opposed to natural languages, say). If you could understand the language, it's quite a lovely picture.
Indded. But free will is not one of them.Why wouldn't it be? There are already certain rules and concepts that logically would only apply in an environment with time (causality, for instance).
Yes, it would appear that you have missed the point of this thread. Might I suggest you read my OP? We haven't diverged too far from it, thankfully[snip]
Sorry again if this doesn't fit w/ the thread - I haven't read much here yet.
You could start by listing my parameters, and explaining why you think they are flawed.I don't know of a way to demonstrate it to you as you seem to have already decided the outcome, or what would it take to demonstrate it for you?
If our system is open with respect to the 'something', then it could do so quite easily.how could something existing outside of our system cause somethig within it to not have free will,
No, this is not how I used it, and I am aware of the physical manifestations of the Heisenburg Uncertainty Principle.Thats why I asked how you were using it, the description given stated that in order to determin locattion of an electron the description states
"For example, for us to "see" an electron, a photon must first interact with it, and this interaction will change the path of that electron."
this is direct involvement in the phenomena being observed, so it would obviouslly have consequence from it, thats why I asked if this was th way you intended to use the term observer effect?
Yes, that's what I thought. To recap:einsteins relativity.
How does quantum mechanics become philosophy?quantum mechanics becomes philosophy and is flawed because of it.
We could discuss mathematical language in more depth via PM if you wish, but such a tutorial would drag us off-topic here.I can see the picture I just dont understand that language for describing it.
Because there are less constraints (specifically, there is no arrow of time). An entity in such a state has one less obstacle obscuring it's view of the 'real' reality.Why?
As I have posted several times, I am not arguing that foreknowledge influences reality. Rather, the possible forms of reality are limited to those that allow foreknowledge to exist.
The existance of life does not force the universe to be hospitable to it, but we can deduce the universes hospitality from the existance of life.
I do not claim that 'free will' is 'will that is free', in the superficial sense of the phrase. Before, I defined it as: "Free will is the ability by which a sentient entity can make unpredictable (though reasoned) choices".Then your notion of free will is all jumbled. When you say free will what exactly do mean the will is free from? For your OP combined with this last post to make sense it can be nothing causal. It sounds like you are asking if the will is free from logical necessity; to this I would respond of course it isnt.
Unpredictable by whom? Us? or God?I do not claim that 'free will' is 'will that is free', in the superficial sense of the phrase. Before, I defined it as: "Free will is the ability by which a sentient entity can make unpredictable (though reasoned) choices".
Personally, I have no stance as to whether it exists or not. I'm simply arguing against the coexistance of it and omniscience (something we seem to agree on).