A while back there was a discussion concerning the geneologies of Matthew and Luke. I did not get into the middle of the discussion because it was a heated and confusing discussion, but now I felt it was time to bring it up and possibly straighten it out. This discussion is very broad and I do not know whether it should go into one thread or several I think for now though that we should stick to this one aspect. The other aspects (the use of the word Tsemach, why four gospels, which gospel relates to which Tsemach) may need to come out in other threads.
A quick search of the name "Joseph" used throughout the Bible reveals that it was a common name. Most folks can come up with at least three Josephs right away; Joseph in Egypt, Joseph Mary's husband, and Joseph of Aramathaea. There are many more Joseph's in the Old Testament, it was a common name.
Now when you look at the geneology in Luke 3 it traces back through the legal side of Jesus' geneology through Nathan to David and further back through Adam to God. This is the entire legal lineage of Jesus as a man.
LK 3:23 And Jesus himself began to be about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph, which was [the son] of Heli,
The geneology in Matthew says that Joseph's father was not Heli:
MT 1:16 And Jacob begat Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ.
What do we do with this? You will see that the geneology is entirely different from David on. But if you pay attention you will see that this tracks his mother's side of the family. This is the Royal or Regal geneology. This "Joseph" is not Mary's husband it is Mary's father. The word "husband" is the Greek word "aner" which is a generic term meaning "adult male". It is translated "man" 156 times, "husband" 50, "sir" 6, "fellow" 1. So it does not have to be translated as "husband" in this verse.
The Aramaic shows a distinction between verse 16 and verse 19 that the Greek does not show. In verse 16 the word translated into Greek as aner is the Aramaic word GBRA meaning "mighty man" whereas in verse 19 the Aramaic word is BALA "husband".
MT 1:17 So all the generations from Abraham to David [are] fourteen generations; and from David until the carrying away into Babylon [are] fourteen generations; and from the carrying away into Babylon unto Christ [are] fourteen generations.
If you want further proof that this "Joseph", verse 16, is Mary's father count the generations as given. Simply write down the numbers 1 through 14 and list the names as given in the previous verses. Abraham is 1, David is 14; Solomon is 1, Jechonias is 14; Salathiel is 1, Joseph is 12, Mary is 13 and Jesus Christ is 14.
The scriptures do not contradict each other, the errors are either in translation or in our understanding.
A quick search of the name "Joseph" used throughout the Bible reveals that it was a common name. Most folks can come up with at least three Josephs right away; Joseph in Egypt, Joseph Mary's husband, and Joseph of Aramathaea. There are many more Joseph's in the Old Testament, it was a common name.
Now when you look at the geneology in Luke 3 it traces back through the legal side of Jesus' geneology through Nathan to David and further back through Adam to God. This is the entire legal lineage of Jesus as a man.
LK 3:23 And Jesus himself began to be about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph, which was [the son] of Heli,
The geneology in Matthew says that Joseph's father was not Heli:
MT 1:16 And Jacob begat Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ.
What do we do with this? You will see that the geneology is entirely different from David on. But if you pay attention you will see that this tracks his mother's side of the family. This is the Royal or Regal geneology. This "Joseph" is not Mary's husband it is Mary's father. The word "husband" is the Greek word "aner" which is a generic term meaning "adult male". It is translated "man" 156 times, "husband" 50, "sir" 6, "fellow" 1. So it does not have to be translated as "husband" in this verse.
The Aramaic shows a distinction between verse 16 and verse 19 that the Greek does not show. In verse 16 the word translated into Greek as aner is the Aramaic word GBRA meaning "mighty man" whereas in verse 19 the Aramaic word is BALA "husband".
MT 1:17 So all the generations from Abraham to David [are] fourteen generations; and from David until the carrying away into Babylon [are] fourteen generations; and from the carrying away into Babylon unto Christ [are] fourteen generations.
If you want further proof that this "Joseph", verse 16, is Mary's father count the generations as given. Simply write down the numbers 1 through 14 and list the names as given in the previous verses. Abraham is 1, David is 14; Solomon is 1, Jechonias is 14; Salathiel is 1, Joseph is 12, Mary is 13 and Jesus Christ is 14.
The scriptures do not contradict each other, the errors are either in translation or in our understanding.