Who is Robert Breaker? Is He a False Teacher?

[RightlyDividedScriptures]

Also: Regarding Romans 11:12 "Now if *the fall* of them be *the riches* of the world, and *the diminishing* of them the riches of the Gentiles; *how much more their fulness?*"

Commentary on Romans 11:12 from Cambridge Bible for Schools and Colleges
12. *the fall*] Same word as in Romans 11:11. See note there.

*the riches*] “The unsearchable riches of Messiah,” (Ephesians 3:8,) which “on occasion of” the rejection of Messiah by the Jews were preached to the “world” of the Gentiles.

*the diminishing*] The Gr. word, by analogy with cognate words in the classics, invites the rendering “defeat.” But it stands here in plain contrast to that rendered “fulness;” and so should be interpreted a lessening, falling short, in respect of numbers. Unbelief in Messiah reduced to woeful fewness the “Israel” which was really in covenant. More and more it proved to be a mere “remnant.” And the causes which brought this about were also, under God, the causes of the spread of the Gospel to the Gentiles.

*how much more their fulness?*] The better cause shall produce a better effect.—“Their fulness:”—i.e. THE FILLING UP OF THEIR NUMBERS. The true Israel shall at length include a vastly larger proportion of Israel the nation, whether or no the nation shall be literally all brought in. See further below, on Romans 11:15; Romans 11:26.
SEE: Romans 11:12 Commentaries: Now if their transgression is riches for the world and their failure is riches for the Gentiles, how much more will their fulfillment be!

 

[ozso]

From looking at his statement of faith on his website, Robert Breaker appears to be a Free Grace once saved always saved teacher along the lines of Bob Wilkin, Zane Hodges, Charles Ryrie and Hank Lindstrom etc.

 

[RightlyDividedScriptures]

From looking at his statement of faith on his website, Robert Breaker appears to be a Free Grace once saved always saved teacher along the lines of Bob Wilkin, Zane Hodges, Charles Ryrie and Hank Lindstrom etc.

Yes, Robert Breaker is absolutely OSAS because he rightly divides the scriptures per 2 Tim 2:15KJV and gets proper salvific doctrine for the Church Age Saints from the Pauline Epistles, and not from the Hebrew Epistles (which are for the future Tribulation Saints).
Church Age Saints are saved by faith alone in the shed blood of Christ (Romans 3:23-25) His death for our sins, burial, and resurrection (1Cor 15:1-4 and Romans 10:9) without works (Ephesians 2:8-9); and we are sealed until the day of Redemptio [rapture/catching away/harpazo] (Eph 1:13-14 and 4:30).
We are the body and bride of Christ, espoused/betrothed to the Lord. (2 Cor 11:2 Eph 5:25-27)

 

[parousia70]

The fullness of the Gentiles is a period of time that will come to an end according to Jesus Himself:
Luke 21:24
24 And they (Jewish people) shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led away captive into all nations: and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled. (Jerusalem has been trodden down by the Gentiles until 1995): SEE GRAPH:
Jerusalem - Wikipedia

Luke 21:24 is entirely parallel to Revelation 11:2
But leave out the court which is outside the temple, and do not measure it, for it has been given to the Gentiles. And they will tread the holy city underfoot for forty-two months.

The time of Gentile trampling of the city, by scriptural edict, lasts exactly 42 Months from beginning to end, not 1900+ years.
The "Fulness of the gentiles", as scripture demonstrates, is a completely different topic. You have no scriptural instruction to conflate the two.

Observation: You have way flooded too many topics and questions for me to be able to respond in any clear manner.

I get it. Many Dispensensationalists will tend to pick up their ball and leave the sandbox when their views get held up to the light of scripture. The Kitchen can get hot.

But still, I'd like to know What “Commandment of the everlasting God” can you show me that says the Gospel would be made known to all the nations, that Paul could possibly be referencing in Romans 16:25-26 as a "fulfilled reality" in his day, if not Matthew 24:14?

 

[RightlyDividedScriptures]

Luke 21:24 is entirely parallel to Revelation 11:2
But leave out the court which is outside the temple, and do not measure it, for it has been given to the Gentiles. And they will tread the holy city underfoot for forty-two months.

The time of Gentile trampling of the city, by scriptural edict, lasts exactly 42 Months from beginning to end, not 1900+ years.
The "Fulness of the gentiles", as scripture demonstrates, is a completely different topic. You have no scriptural instruction to conflate the two.



I get it. Many Dispensensationalists will tend to pick up their ball and leave the sandbox when their views get held up to the light of scripture. The Kitchen can get hot.

But still, I'd like to know What “Commandment of the everlasting God” can you show me that says the Gospel would be made known to all the nations, that Paul could possibly be referencing in Romans 16:25-26 as a "fulfilled reality" in his day, if not Matthew 24:14?

********************************************

Do not blame my initial choice to leave the conversation on my being stumped by your opinions. I told you that you present too many topics at one time for me to be answering properly. Ask one question at a time, and I will be glad to answer you, one at a time.
ANSWERS:
Part 1)
Romans 16:25-26 is pointing us to Paul's Gospel which is AKA the Gospel of the Grace of God / AKA the Gospel of Christ. Go to Biblehub and read the commentaries. Here is the link to Romans 16:25:
Romans 16:25 Commentaries: Now to Him who is able to establish you according to my gospel and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery which has been kept secret for long ages past,

AND Romans 16:26:
Romans 16:26 Commentaries: but now is manifested, and by the Scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the eternal God, has been made known to all the nations, leading to obedience of faith;
*************************************************


ANSWER PART 2
WHAT IS PAUL'S GOSPEL (AKA The Gospel of Peace/Grace/Christ) and HOW DOES IT DIFFER FROM THE GOSPEL OF THE KINGDOM?

We are certainly NOT now living in the time period of the Millennial Kingdom which lasts only 1000 years, and will be a characterized by a time of peace where Jesus rules the world in person from Jerusalem with a rod of Iron; and the wolf and the lamb lie in peace together, and a person of 100 who dies will be considered yet a child. And we are certainly NOT living on eternal the New Earth in the New Heavens.

There are at least 7 different revelations of the Gospel revealed in the bible. Things different are NOT the same. Here are the four on which we are focusing:
********************************************
1) John The baptist preached the Gospel of the Coming Messiah/King which was the introduction to the Gospel of the Kingdom which Jesus preached only to Israel. His ministry was addressed to all ranks and stations of Jewish society. His message was that God’s judgment on the world was imminent and that, to prepare for this judgment, the people should repent their sins, be water baptized for remission/forgiveness of sins, and produce appropriate fruits of repentance (metanoia=a change of mind):

Mark 1:4 John the Baptist appeared in the wilderness preaching a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sins. 5 And all the country of Judea was going out to him, and all the people of Jerusalem; and they were being WATER baptized by him in the Jordan River, confessing their sins. (Note water baptism is not<NOT faith in the shed blood of Christ which permanently removes sins.)
*********************************************
2) Jesus preached the Gospel of The Kingdom. (Mark 1:14-15).
After John had been arrested, Jesus himself took up the message of the coming kingdom. Matthew recorded;

Mark 1:12 Now when Jesus heard that John had been taken into custody, He withdrew into Galilee; 13 and leaving Nazareth, He came and settled in Capernaum, which is by the sea, in the region of Zebulun and Naphtali. 14 This was to fulfill what was spoken through Isaiah the prophet: 15 “The land of Zebulun and the land of Naphtali, By the way of the sea, beyond the Jordan, Galilee of the Gentiles—16 “The people who were sitting in darkness saw a great Light, And those who were sitting in the land and shadow of death, Upon them a Light dawned.” 17 From that time Jesus began to preach and say, “Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is at hand (Matthew 4.12-17).

Jesus was going through all the cities and villages, teaching in their synagogues and proclaiming THE GOSPEL OF THE KINGDOM, and healing every kind of disease and every kind of sickness (Matthew 9:35).
***************************************

3) Paul preached the Gospel of God's Grace/ AKA the Gospel of Christ which is faith alone in the shed BLOOD atonement of Christ, his death for our sins, burial and resurrection.
First mentioned in Acts 20.24; and recorded in 1 Cor 15:1-4, supported by Romans 3:23-25, Romans 10:9 and Ephesians 2:8-9)

COMPARE THE TWO MESSAGES:
1) Gospel of the Kingdom (Mark 1:14)
2) Gospel of Grace (Acts 20:24)

1) Preaches the soon coming of the king and his kingdom (Matt 3:2)
2) Preaches the grace of God for salvation (Rom 3:22-26)

1) The king and kingdom was promised to the nation of Israel (Luke 1:69)
2) The grace of God is offered freely to all (Rom 3:22)

1) The kingdom was spoken about since the world began (Acts 3:21-25)
2) The dispensation of God’s grace was kept secret since the world began (Rom 16:25)

1) Killing the king is a sad and wicked thing (Luke 24:17; Acts 2:23)
2) The crucifixion of Christ is our glory (Gal 6:14)

1) The cross of Christ was not part of the message (Luke 9:2 vs. Luke 18:34)
2) Requires preaching the cross (1 Corinthians 15:1-4)

1) Resurrection was not part of the message (John 20:9)
2) Preaching is vain without the resurrection (1 Corinthians 15:14)

1) The kingdom requires performance (1 John 2:3; Matt 25:32-46)
2) God’s grace motivates a purpose in your heart (2 Cor 9:7; 2 Cor 5:14-15)

1) The kingdom will benefit everyone on earth (Rev 20:3-4; Isa 2:3-4)
2) God’s grace unto salvation benefits only those that believe (Rom 3:22)

1) Salvation comes in the future when the kingdom comes (Acts 3:19; Heb 9:28; 1 Pet 1:5)
2) Salvation comes at the moment of belief (Eph 1:13; Rom 5:1)

1) To be saved requires enduring to the end (Matt 24:13)
2) To be saved requires believing your work has come to an end (Rom 4:5)

1) There is a difference between Jew and Gentile in the kingdom (Matt 15:26; Zech 8:23)
2) There are no Jews or Gentiles in the church in this dispensation of grace (Gal 3:28)

1) Was given to the Twelve apostles of Israel to preach (Acts 1:3)
2) Was given to the apostle of the Gentiles to preach (Rom 11:13; 1 Cor 9:17; Eph 3:1-2)

1) Waiting for a kingdom of heaven to come to earth (Matt 6:10) Preaching for those on earth to trust Christ and go to heaven (Eph 2:6-7)
The kingdom will be a visible presence on earth (Matt 24:27; Rev 19:11) God’s grace is by faith and not by sight (2 Cor 5:7)
Healing of the sick was a sign of the kingdom (Matt 4:23; Mark 16:18) The lack of healing is a sign of God’s sufficient grace (2 Cor 12:8-10)
Water baptism prepares Israel to enter the kingdom (Matt 3:3; Acts 2:38) Baptism by the Spirit places us in the Body of Christ (1 Cor 12:13)
Continued obedience to the commandments required (Matt 23:13) Justified without the law of Moses; not under the law (Acts 13:39; Rom 6:14)
Faith without works is dead (James 2:24) Faith in the finished work of Christ gives peace and life (Rom 4:5; Rom 5:1)

*******************************************

4) The angel preached the Everlasting Gospel much later during the Tribulation which follows the closure of the Gospel of Christ that is now being preached to the world at large by the body/bride of Christ.
**************************************************
CONCLUSION:
Matthew 24 was written to OT JEWS about the timing of the Second Coming and the Millennial Kingdom. This time period (both Tribulation and Millennial Kingdom) Jesus taught the Jews about is not about the time period of body of Christ (Jew and Gentile are now one new man in Christ Jesus) because the body of Christ was still a mystery kept secret in God, and so was the message of the cross. The Gospel of Grace revealed to Paul by Jesus Himself had never, ever been fully revealed before to mankind until He revealed it to Paul. This precludes anything Jesus taught to OT Jews in Matthew 24-25 being about the NT body of Christ

Since there is way too much information available on this subject which debunk your Amillennial theories, here are two links containing the proper answer to the your question regarding the meaning of the expression: "trodden down by the Gentiles", Also included below is the lexicon definition of what the fullness of the Gentiles means:
Strong's Concordance
pléróma: fullness, a filling up
Original Word: πλήρωμα, ατος, τό
Part of Speech: Noun, Neuter
Transliteration: pléróma
Phonetic Spelling: (play'-ro-mah)
Definition: fullness, a filling up
Usage: (a) a fill, fullness; full complement; supply, patch, supplement, (b) fullness, filling, fulfillment, completion.
HELPS Word-studies
Cognate: 4138 plḗrōma – "sum total, fulness, even (super) abundance" (BAGD). See 4130 (plēthō).

LINKS:
1) What is the fullness of the Gentiles (Romans 11:25)? | GotQuestions.org

2) The Times of the Gentiles

 

[Allen of the Cross]

I'm really into the treasures in heaven promise, so I found Robert Breakers teaching on giving. It was an okay teaching. He leaned more on the fact that we "give" more than just money, which I agree with but I found generally unhelpful. I dont remember much about his teaching though.

I do notice he somehow manages to preach on his end times views in every video. Drawn right above his videos is a diagram of how he sees the ages of the time, which is pre-trib dispensationalism. I dont mind though, I wouldn't fall out over that.

What got me is that he called the Israelites the wife of the Father. That's not found in scriptures. The church is the bride of Christ. Marriage language is found in the OT but it never says they marry the Father. Christ is the God of the OT as much as He is the NT.

Overall, listen to him and accept what is good, though dont blindly listen so to speak: it's best to study the scriptures yourself. Most preachers preach a lot of rotten milk or poisoned meat at best. It is best to hunt good game for yourself. Read your bible. God bless you.

 

[parousia70]

********************************************


There are at least 7 different revelations of the Gospel revealed in the bible. Things different are NOT the same. Here are the four on which we are focusing:
********************************************
1) John The baptist preached the Gospel of the Coming Messiah/King which was the introduction to the Gospel of the Kingdom which Jesus preached only to Israel. His ministry was addressed to all ranks and stations of Jewish society. His message was that God’s judgment on the world was imminent and that, to prepare for this judgment, the people should repent their sins, be water baptized for remission/forgiveness of sins, and produce appropriate fruits of repentance (metanoia=a change of mind):

Mark 1:4 John the Baptist appeared in the wilderness preaching a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sins. 5 And all the country of Judea was going out to him, and all the people of Jerusalem; and they were being WATER baptized by him in the Jordan River, confessing their sins. (Note water baptism is not<NOT faith in the shed blood of Christ which permanently removes sins.)
*********************************************
2) Jesus preached the Gospel of The Kingdom. (Mark 1:14-15).
After John had been arrested, Jesus himself took up the message of the coming kingdom. Matthew recorded;

Mark 1:12 Now when Jesus heard that John had been taken into custody, He withdrew into Galilee; 13 and leaving Nazareth, He came and settled in Capernaum, which is by the sea, in the region of Zebulun and Naphtali. 14 This was to fulfill what was spoken through Isaiah the prophet: 15 “The land of Zebulun and the land of Naphtali, By the way of the sea, beyond the Jordan, Galilee of the Gentiles—16 “The people who were sitting in darkness saw a great Light, And those who were sitting in the land and shadow of death, Upon them a Light dawned.” 17 From that time Jesus began to preach and say, “Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is at hand (Matthew 4.12-17).

Jesus was going through all the cities and villages, teaching in their synagogues and proclaiming THE GOSPEL OF THE KINGDOM, and healing every kind of disease and every kind of sickness (Matthew 9:35).
***************************************

3) Paul preached the Gospel of God's Grace/ AKA the Gospel of Christ which is faith alone in the shed BLOOD atonement of Christ, his death for our sins, burial and resurrection.
First mentioned in Acts 20.24; and recorded in 1 Cor 15:1-4, supported by Romans 3:23-25, Romans 10:9 and Ephesians 2:8-9)

COMPARE THE TWO MESSAGES:
1) Gospel of the Kingdom (Mark 1:14)
2) Gospel of Grace (Acts 20:24)

1) Preaches the soon coming of the king and his kingdom (Matt 3:2)
2) Preaches the grace of God for salvation (Rom 3:22-26)

1) The king and kingdom was promised to the nation of Israel (Luke 1:69)
2) The grace of God is offered freely to all (Rom 3:22)

1) The kingdom was spoken about since the world began (Acts 3:21-25)
2) The dispensation of God’s grace was kept secret since the world began (Rom 16:25)

1) Killing the king is a sad and wicked thing (Luke 24:17; Acts 2:23)
2) The crucifixion of Christ is our glory (Gal 6:14)

1) The cross of Christ was not part of the message (Luke 9:2 vs. Luke 18:34)
2) Requires preaching the cross (1 Corinthians 15:1-4)

1) Resurrection was not part of the message (John 20:9)
2) Preaching is vain without the resurrection (1 Corinthians 15:14)

1) The kingdom requires performance (1 John 2:3; Matt 25:32-46)
2) God’s grace motivates a purpose in your heart (2 Cor 9:7; 2 Cor 5:14-15)

1) The kingdom will benefit everyone on earth (Rev 20:3-4; Isa 2:3-4)
2) God’s grace unto salvation benefits only those that believe (Rom 3:22)

1) Salvation comes in the future when the kingdom comes (Acts 3:19; Heb 9:28; 1 Pet 1:5)
2) Salvation comes at the moment of belief (Eph 1:13; Rom 5:1)

1) To be saved requires enduring to the end (Matt 24:13)
2) To be saved requires believing your work has come to an end (Rom 4:5)

1) There is a difference between Jew and Gentile in the kingdom (Matt 15:26; Zech 8:23)
2) There are no Jews or Gentiles in the church in this dispensation of grace (Gal 3:28)

1) Was given to the Twelve apostles of Israel to preach (Acts 1:3)
2) Was given to the apostle of the Gentiles to preach (Rom 11:13; 1 Cor 9:17; Eph 3:1-2)

1) Waiting for a kingdom of heaven to come to earth (Matt 6:10) Preaching for those on earth to trust Christ and go to heaven (Eph 2:6-7)
The kingdom will be a visible presence on earth (Matt 24:27; Rev 19:11) God’s grace is by faith and not by sight (2 Cor 5:7)
Healing of the sick was a sign of the kingdom (Matt 4:23; Mark 16:18) The lack of healing is a sign of God’s sufficient grace (2 Cor 12:8-10)
Water baptism prepares Israel to enter the kingdom (Matt 3:3; Acts 2:38) Baptism by the Spirit places us in the Body of Christ (1 Cor 12:13)
Continued obedience to the commandments required (Matt 23:13) Justified without the law of Moses; not under the law (Acts 13:39; Rom 6:14)
Faith without works is dead (James 2:24) Faith in the finished work of Christ gives peace and life (Rom 4:5; Rom 5:1)

*******************************************

4) The angel preached the Everlasting Gospel much later during the Tribulation which follows the closure of the Gospel of Christ that is now being preached to the world at large by the body/bride of Christ.
**************************************************
CONCLUSION:
Matthew 24 was written to OT JEWS about the timing of the Second Coming and the Millennial Kingdom. This time period (both Tribulation and Millennial Kingdom) Jesus taught the Jews about is not about the time period of body of Christ (Jew and Gentile are now one new man in Christ Jesus) because the body of Christ was still a mystery kept secret in God, and so was the message of the cross. The Gospel of Grace revealed to Paul by Jesus Himself had never, ever been fully revealed before to mankind until He revealed it to Paul. This precludes anything Jesus taught to OT Jews in Matthew 24-25 being about the NT body of Christ

Since there is way too much information available on this subject which debunk your Amillennial theories, here are two links containing the proper answer to the your question regarding the meaning of the expression: "trodden down by the Gentiles", Also included below is the lexicon definition of what the fullness of the Gentiles means:
Strong's Concordance
pléróma: fullness, a filling up
Original Word: πλήρωμα, ατος, τό
Part of Speech: Noun, Neuter
Transliteration: pléróma
Phonetic Spelling: (play'-ro-mah)
Definition: fullness, a filling up
Usage: (a) a fill, fullness; full complement; supply, patch, supplement, (b) fullness, filling, fulfillment, completion.
HELPS Word-studies
Cognate: 4138 plḗrōma – "sum total, fulness, even (super) abundance" (BAGD). See 4130 (plēthō).

LINKS:
1) What is the fullness of the Gentiles (Romans 11:25)? | GotQuestions.org

2) The Times of the Gentiles

That had to be one of the longest NON answers I have ever received.

Here was my question:

WHAT COMANDMENT of the everlasting God can you show me that says the gospel (fine, Pauls Gospel of Grace) was to be preached to all the nations that Paul is referencing as a fulfilled reality?

I didnt ask for your opinion on kingdom vs grace.

I want to know what "Commandment of the everlasting God" that you believe Paul is referring to?

There are at least 7 different revelations of the Gospel revealed in the bible. Things different are NOT the same.

Which makes me wonder why you think the Times of the gentiles and the fulness of the gentiles, TWO DIFFERENT THINGS, are the same?

COMPARE THE TWO MESSAGES:
1) Gospel of the Kingdom (Mark 1:14)
2) Gospel of Grace (Acts 20:24)

At what point did the Gospel of the Kingdom cease to be preached, in favor of the gospel of Grace?

Which one is being preached about here:
"He has delivered us from the power of darkness and conveyed us into the kingdom of the Son of His love," Colossians 1:13

If the offer of the Kingdom had been rescinded at this point, How is it that Paul could be saying this?

Or here:
that you would walk worthy of God who calls you into His own kingdom and glory. 1 Thessalonians 2:12

How could God be STILL calling them into His Kingdom if the offer had been rescinded by this time?

Or here:
Therefore, since we are receiving a kingdom which cannot be shaken, let us have grace, by which we may serve God acceptably with reverence and godly fear. Hebrews 12:28

How could they be RECEIVING a Kingdom at this time when the offer had been rescinded decades earlier?

Or here:
2 Peter 1:11
for so an entrance will be supplied to you abundantly into the everlasting kingdom of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ.

How could an entrance to the Kingdom be supplied to them when the offer of that entrance had been rescinded?

 

[RightlyDividedScriptures]

I'm really into the treasures in heaven promise, so I found Robert Breakers teaching on giving. It was an okay teaching. He leaned more on the fact that we "give" more than just money, which I agree with but I found generally unhelpful. I dont remember much about his teaching though.

I do notice he somehow manages to preach on his end times views in every video. Drawn right above his videos is a diagram of how he sees the ages of the time, which is pre-trib dispensationalism. I dont mind though, I wouldn't fall out over that.

What got me is that he called the Israelites the wife of the Father. That's not found in scriptures. The church is the bride of Christ. Marriage language is found in the OT but it never says they marry the Father. Christ is the God of the OT as much as He is the NT.

Overall, listen to him and accept what is good, though dont blindly listen so to speak: it's best to study the scriptures yourself. Most preachers preach a lot of rotten milk or poisoned meat at best. It is best to hunt good game for yourself. Read your bible. God bless you.

******************************************
Thanks for the warning, but it is unnecessary. I have 36 years of bible study as a born again Christian, am over 65, and do not listen blindly to any human teacher. I abide by 2 Tim 2:15 KJV. The cross enabled God to remarry the House of Israel (including saved gentiles) because He died, and cancelled the first contract.

.

 

[Der Alte]

* * * Yes, Robert Breaker is absolutely OSAS because he rightly divides the scriptures per 2 Tim 2:15KJV and gets proper salvific doctrine for the Church Age Saints from the Pauline Epistles, and not from the Hebrew Epistles (which are for the future Tribulation Saints). * * *

Due to the expense we can assume that few 1st century believers had very little if any of the N.T. and would have no reason to make the stated distinction between Pauline and Hebrew epistles. Very likely they would have understood scripture literally as written.

2 Timothy 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:​

 

[parousia70]

Due to the expense we can assume that few 1st century believers had very little if any of the N.T. and would have no reason to make the stated distinction between Pauline and Hebrew epistles. Very likely they would have understood scripture literally as written.

2 Timothy 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:​

Not to mention the fact that the overwhelming majority couldn’t read and were reliant on the few that could, to read it to them and impart their understanding of the text in the process.
There was no such thing as “study the Bible for yourself” back then.

 

[Allen of the Cross]

******************************************
Thanks for the warning, but it is unnecessary. I have 36 years of bible study as a born again Christian, am over 65, and do not listen blindly to any human teacher. I abide by 2 Tim 2:15 KJV. The cross enabled God to remarry the House of Israel (including saved gentiles) because He died, and cancelled the first contract.

.

That's good, its important for us to lean entirely on scriptures and not men. The traditions of men make the Word of God of none effect, not the other way around. Purging the leaven is key to making oneself a tasty unleavened cake. Jesus be with you

 

[RightlyDividedScriptures]

Due to the expense we can assume that few 1st century believers had very little if any of the N.T. and would have no reason to make the stated distinction between Pauline and Hebrew epistles. Very likely they would have understood scripture literally as written.

2 Timothy 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:​

After the book of Acts (AKA: The Gospel of Luke Part 2) took place, and Paul was made the chief apostle to the gentiles, the first century believers (Jew and Gentile) would've heard the gospel of their salvation directly from the Apostle's mouths. The written words they had were the OT, and perhaps a letter or two from one of the Apostles.

So your point is what?
The NT was written down for all those who would believe the Gospel (recorded in 1 Cor 15:1-4) and who would be saved beginning from right after the cross, right on up until the Second Coming. So far that includes about 2000 years worth of NT believers. God has the ability to open or close revelation of the scriptures. He can write scripture ahead of time for people down the road in the future to understand. In Daniel 12:4 God told Daniel:... Daniel, shut up these words and seal the book until the time of the end. Many will roam to and fro, and knowledge will increase.”
It took a while to assemble all the NT books. The only message the 1st century believer needed was that they would be saved from God's righteous judgment, and inherit eternal life when they died IF they trusted by faith alone that Jesus (who is God in the flesh) had died to pay for their sins, that He was buried, and rose again the third day. (1 Cor 15:1-4). Meanwhile, today we are NT believers who DO have access to the entire NT written word, and we are instructed in 2 Tim 2:15KJV to: 15 "Study(it) to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth."
So it does matter that when we study the Old and New Testaments today, that we distinguish to what people groups, and during what time periods, the scriptures are addressed.

 

[parousia70]

The only message the 1st century believer needed was that they would be saved from God's righteous judgment, and inherit eternal life when they died IF they trusted by faith alone that Jesus (who is God in the flesh) had died to pay for their sins, that He was buried, and rose again the third day.

So when Jesus was directly addressing the 1st century people at Sardis and said to them:

“Therefore if you will not watch, I will come upon you as a thief, and you will not know what hour I will come upon you.” (Revelation 3:3)

He was telling them something that had no relevance to them and they were free to reject and/or ignore His words?

 

[Der Alte]

After the book of Acts (AKA: The Gospel of Luke Part 2) took place, and Paul was made the chief apostle to the gentiles, the first century believers (Jew and Gentile) would've heard the gospel of their salvation directly from the Apostle's mouths. The written words they had were the OT, and perhaps a letter or two from one of the Apostles.
So your point is what?
The NT was written down for all those who would believe the Gospel (recorded in 1 Cor 15:1-4) and who would be saved beginning from right after the cross, right on up until the Second Coming. So far that includes about 2000 years worth of NT believers. God has the ability to open or close revelation of the scriptures. He can write scripture ahead of time for people down the road in the future to understand. In Daniel 12:4 God told Daniel:... Daniel, shut up these words and seal the book until the time of the end. Many will roam to and fro, and knowledge will increase.”
It took a while to assemble all the NT books. The only message the 1st century believer needed was that they would be saved from God's righteous judgment, and inherit eternal life when they died IF they trusted by faith alone that Jesus (who is God in the flesh) had died to pay for their sins, that He was buried, and rose again the third day. (1 Cor 15:1-4). Meanwhile, today we are NT believers who DO have access to the entire NT written word, and we are instructed in 2 Tim 2:15KJV to: 15 "Study(it) to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth."
So it does matter that when we study the Old and New Testaments today, that we distinguish to what people groups, and during what time periods, the scriptures are addressed.

Restating a proposition in a slightly different way does not validate the proposition.
Quotes from the OT would, in fact, have more significance to Jews and NT scriptures directed to certain gentile areas, cities etc. would not have as much meaning, significance to Jews. But there is no line in the sand Jews over here, gentiles over there, in the N.T.

Romans 10:11-13 For the scripture saith, Whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed.
(12) For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him.
(13) For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.​

 

[RightlyDividedScriptures]

So when Jesus was directly addressing the 1st century people at Sardis and said to them:

“Therefore if you will not watch, I will come upon you as a thief, and you will not know what hour I will come upon you.” (Revelation 3:3)

He was telling them something that had no relevance to them and they were free to reject and/or ignore His words?

ANSWER: I never said, nor implied that any scripture was irrelevant. But we do have to study to understand how it is relevant to us in our time period. ALL scripture is written FOR us, but not all scripture is addressed TO us as the NT body of Christ. E.G. Today we do not keep the ceremonial laws such as the dietary laws, perform animal sacrifices, giving grain and drink offerings, nor keep the Saturday sabbath God assigned to OT Israel. Neither do we stone adulterers and homosexuals.

"John the apostle addressed seven letters to seven real churches that existed during the time he wrote the book of Revelation in about 90-95 A.D.

In Revelation 2—3, we find these churches included Ephesus, Smyrna, Pergamum, Thyatira, Sardis, Philadelphia, and Laodicea. All of these cities were in modern-day Turkey, near the island of Patmos from where John wrote Revelation.

Each church's message, though specific to its situation, also offers applications for our lives today. Ephesus was commanded to return to its first love (Revelation 2:4). Smyrna was told it would endure persecution (Revelation 2:10). Pergamum was called to repentance (Revelation 2:16). Thyatira was commanded to remove its false prophetess (Revelation 2:20). Sardis needed to wake from its sleep (Revelation 3:2). Philadelphia was to continue its patient endurance (Revelation 3:10). Laodicea was to end its lukewarm faith (Revelation 3:16).

Many also believe that these seven churches represent historical time periods in existence throughout the church age. For example, the church of Ephesus would resemble the first churches while Laodicea represents today's lukewarm churches.

In addition to the specific details given to each church, each introduction to the church letters describe an aspect of the glorified Jesus. For example, Revelation 2:1 says, "The words of him who holds the seven stars in his right hand, who walks among the seven golden lampstands." Revelation 1:20 defines the "seven stars" as the angels or messengers of the seven churches that are held in the hand of Jesus. The seven golden lampstands represent the seven churches Jesus walked among.

The end of the church's letter also mentions details about eternal rewards. For example, Revelation 2:11 says, "The one who conquers will not be hurt by the second death." Those who conquer are Christians. Revelation 20:14 later describes the second death, saying, "This is the second death, the lake of fire."

Another example can be found in Revelation 2:28. There the letter says to believers: "And I will give him the morning star." Revelation 22:16 later makes clear, "I, Jesus, have sent my angel to testify to you about these things for the churches. I am the root and the descendant of David, the bright morning star."

In summary, each church was a literal church that received a letter from John. Each letter offered information about the glorified Jesus, instructions to the church, and a description of eternal rewards. Furthermore, these letters offer many applications for readers today who seek to live holy lives and be prepared for the coming of Christ."

2 Tim 2:5 “Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.”

 

[Der Alte]

Yes, Robert Breaker is absolutely OSAS because he rightly divides the scriptures per 2 Tim 2:15KJV and gets proper salvific doctrine for the Church Age Saints from the Pauline Epistles, and not from the Hebrew Epistles (which are for the future Tribulation Saints).
Church Age Saints are saved by faith alone in the shed blood of Christ (Romans 3:23-25) His death for our sins, burial, and resurrection (1Cor 15:1-4 and Romans 10:9) without works (Ephesians 2:8-9); and we are sealed until the day of Redemptio [rapture/catching away/harpazo] (Eph 1:13-14 and 4:30).
We are the body and bride of Christ, espoused/betrothed to the Lord. (2 Cor 11:2 Eph 5:25-27)

You evidently have an incorrect understanding of meaning of the compound Greek word translated "dividing", 2 Timothy 2:15.
It has nothing to do with literally "dividing" anything. The first part of the word "ortho" means "straight." The second part "tomeo" means "to cut.

ὀρθοτομέω orthotomeō
Thayer Definition:
1) to cut straight, to cut straight ways
1a) to proceed on straight paths, hold a straight course, equiv. to doing right
2) to make straight and smooth, to handle aright, to teach the truth directly and correctly
Part of Speech: verb
A Related Word by Thayer’s/Strong’s Number: from a compound of G3717 and the base of G5114​

 

[Guojing]

First off, if this is in the wrong part of the forum i apologise.

Anyone heard or seen Robert Breaker Videos? I have seen a couple and today this one:

I found it very interesting.

Anybody able to comment? Thanks

Robert Breaker is a classical or Acts 2 dispensationalist.

 

[RightlyDividedScriptures]

You evidently have an incorrect understanding of meaning of the compound Greek word translated "dividing", 2 Timothy 2:15.
It has nothing to do with literally "dividing" anything. The first part of the word "ortho" means "straight." The second part "tomeo" means "to cut.

ὀρθοτομέω orthotomeō
Thayer Definition:
1) to cut straight, to cut straight ways
1a) to proceed on straight paths, hold a straight course, equiv. to doing right
2) to make straight and smooth, to handle aright, to teach the truth directly and correctly
Part of Speech: verb
A Related Word by Thayer’s/Strong’s Number: from a compound of G3717 and the base of G5114​

I am very well aware of what ὀρθοτομέω means:
Strong's Concordance
orthotomeó: to cut straight
Original Word: ὀρθοτομέω
Part of Speech: Verb
Transliteration: orthotomeó
Phonetic Spelling: (or-thot-om-eh'-o)
Definition: to cut straight
Usage: I cut straight; met: I handle correctly, teach rightly.
HELPS Word-studies
3718 orthotoméō(from temnō, "to cut" and 3717 /orthós, "straight") – properly, cut straight (on a straight line), i.e. "RIGHTLY DIVIDE" (correctly apportion).
**********************************************************
So, no, I do not have an incorrect understanding of the word ὀρθοτομέω orthotomeō.
Let me ask you a question:
What happens when you cut something straight across?
Answer:
You divide it in two!
Please keep your false assumptions about what you think I know and do not know; or about me personally out of the discussion. Thanks.

 

[parousia70]

ANSWER: I never said, nor implied that any scripture was irrelevant. But we do have to study to understand how it is relevant to us in our time period.

But, according to you: "The only message the 1st century believer needed was that they would be saved from God's righteous judgment, and inherit eternal life when they died IF they trusted by faith alone that Jesus (who is God in the flesh) had died to pay for their sins, that He was buried, and rose again the third day."

Which, according to you, then renders Revelation 3:3, SPECIFIALLY, irrelevant and specifically "UNNECESSARY" to the 1st century people at Sardis that Jesus was directly addressing as if falls outside of what you describe as "The only message the 1st century believer needed."

ALL scripture is written FOR us, but not all scripture is addressed TO us as the NT body of Christ.

This, I absolutely agree with.

 

[Der Alte]

I am very well aware of what ὀρθοτομέω means:
Strong's Concordance
orthotomeó: to cut straight
Original Word: ὀρθοτομέω
Part of Speech: Verb
Transliteration: orthotomeó
Phonetic Spelling: (or-thot-om-eh'-o)
Definition: to cut straight
Usage: I cut straight; met: I handle correctly, teach rightly.
HELPS Word-studies
3718 orthotoméō(from temnō, "to cut" and 3717 /orthós, "straight") – properly, cut straight (on a straight line), i.e. "RIGHTLY DIVIDE" (correctly apportion).
**********************************************************
So, no, I do not have an incorrect understanding of the word ὀρθοτομέω orthotomeō.
Let me ask you a question:
What happens when you cut something straight across?
Answer:
You divide it in two!
Please keep your false assumptions about what you think I know and do not know; or about me personally out of the discussion. Thanks.

Looks like I hit a sensitive nerve. What I see is a continuing attempt to make a word mean what you want it to mean, to make scripture fit your assumptions/presuppositions..
How many times is "orthotomeo" translated "divided" in the NT? Only one. 2 Timothy 2:15. The one and only occurrence in the NT.
The usual word for "divide" in the NT is μερίζω/meridzo, it occurs 14 times.
If Paul had wanted to indicate dividing something why would he use a different word than he used in Romans 12:31, 1 Corinthians 1:13, 1 Corinthians 7:17, 1 Corinthians 7:34, 2 Corinthians 10:13?
If orthotomeo means "rightly dividing" what part of the "the word of truth" is rightly divided from the rest of "the word of truth?" If the "word of truth" must be "rightly divided" that must mean part of the "word of truth" is not really "the word of truth" Does Paul ever explain that?