Who is Peter addressing?

Dave-W

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Please post which verses in 1 Peter, tell you that he is only addressing Jewish believers. Thanks
Already did: 1 Pet 1.1

"Resides as aliens" refers to those in the Diaspora.
"Who are chosen" should be self evident. Replacement theology that the gentile church had replaced Israel as "chosen" had not been invented yet.
 
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Hank77

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Already did: 1 Pet 1.1

"Resides as aliens" refers to those in the Diaspora.
"Who are chosen" should be self evident. Replacement theology that the gentile church had replaced Israel as "chosen" had not been invented yet.
Is that all?
 
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JoeP222w

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Dave-W

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Were there two separate churches in Galatia, one for the Christian Jews and a different one for the Christian Gentiles?
No. Paul wrote to the believing gentiles.
Romans is the only book where he addresses the Jewish believers.
 
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dqhall

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No. Paul wrote to the believing gentiles.
Romans is the only book where he addresses the Jewish believers.
Paul went into a synagogue in Thessalonica as was his custom (Acts 17:2). In Acts 18:4 Paul went to a synagogue in Corinth to teach every Sabbath. In Acts 18:19 Paul went into a synagogue in Ephesus to reason with the Jews.

Paul had Timothy circumcised as they were working among Jews. The Jews of the Diaspora may have maintained some connections with Gentiles who were tolerant of Judaism. Paul also preached to the Gentiles as he needed to discuss his missionary activities to the Gentiles with Peter, John and James in Jerusalem (Acts 15). Paul decided not to require circumcision as it is only a superficial change. Paul did not have Titus circumcised (Galatians 2:3). At the end of the book of Acts, Paul had given up on preaching to Jews and was teaching the Gospel message to Gentiles.
 
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ViaCrucis

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Please post which verses in 1 Peter, tell you that he is only addressing Jewish believers. Thanks

Peter addresses his epistle to the "chosen exiles of the dispersion", he uses the word diasporas (Diaspora, dispersion). So the immediate context would be to Jewish Christians of the Diaspora in the region of Anatolia/modern Turkey ("Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia").

But it seems errant to assume that Peter is excluding Gentile Christians, consider for example 1 Peter 2:10, "Once you were not a people, but now you are God's people; once you had not received mercy, but now you have received mercy." A statement that doesn't exactly make a whole lot of sense if Peter is speaking explicitly to Jewish Christians, since obviously as Jews they were a people, the Covenant people and nation called by God at Mt. Horeb.

Instead it seems Peter takes the language of exile and applies it spiritually to the Church. The Jewish Diaspora is was physically in exile, but the Church exists in a spiritual diaspora, as pilgrims, strangers, here in this world.

The holy nation, the royal priesthood, is the Church; comprised of both Jew and Gentile.

Peter was Apostle to the Circumcision and Paul Apostle to the Gentiles; but that doesn't mean that Peter never addressed or engaged with Gentiles, or that Paul never addressed or engaged with Jews--it is clear enough from the Paul's letters that he includes Jewish believers in his letters because he includes all believers in his letters; and in his ministry as described in the Acts of the Apostles Paul regularly spends his time in synagogues and engaging with fellow Jews. Likewise, the Acts records the first Gentile converts coming to the faith from Peter's preaching.

It would, therefore, be errant to assume that Paul only concerns his letters for Gentile Christians, because that is not the case; and equally errant to assume Peter only concerns his letter(s) for Jewish Christians. There are not two classes of Christains, one Jewish and one Gentile--there is instead the one, united, new people in Jesus Christ, who are all sons and daughters of Abraham by faith. The olive tree contains both natural branches and wild branches which have been grafted. Jew and Gentile, circumcised and uncircumcised, together as one People of Jesus Christ.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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Hank77

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No. Paul wrote to the believing gentiles.
Romans is the only book where he addresses the Jewish believers.
I'm not referring to Paul. I was simply asking if there were two separate churches in Galatia.
You agree that there were not. So you are saying that when Peter wrote to the church in Galatia he was only writing to the Jews in the one Christian church that they were both attending?

What does the law of Moses say about Gentiles who joined the Israelites and became circumcised, what places did they have in the nation, in the commonwealth of Israel?
 
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ViaCrucis

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Already did: 1 Pet 1.1

"Resides as aliens" refers to those in the Diaspora.
"Who are chosen" should be self evident. Replacement theology that the gentile church had replaced Israel as "chosen" had not been invented yet.

And, of course, the idea that "the gentile church had replaced Israel" isn't the orthodox teaching; the orthodox teaching is that the Church is Israel. God doesn't have two Peoples, but one People. The one People comprised of both Jews and Gentiles.

There is no replacement.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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Dave-W

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Paul went into a synagogue in Thessalonica as was his custom (Acts 17:2). In Acts 18:4 Paul went to a synagogue in Corinth to teach every Sabbath. In Acts 18:19 Paul went into a synagogue in Ephesus to reason with the Jews.
Yes. Absolutely.
Paul had Timothy circumcised as they were working among Jews.
No. Paul had Timothy circ'd because he WAS a Jew. (thru his mother) Acts 16 In doing so, he obligated Tim to the "whole law." Gal 5.3
At the end of the book of Acts, Paul had given up on preaching to Jews and was teaching the Gospel message to Gentiles.
But maintained that Jews coming to Faith in Messiah still needed to follow Moses. Acts 21. And he followed not only Moses, but the Pharasaic oral traditions as well. Acts 21 and 28.
 
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Dave-W

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You agree that there were not. So you are saying that when Peter wrote to the church in Galatia he was only writing to the Jews in the one Christian church that they were both attending?
Peter did not write specifically to that church. He wrote to believing Jews in a number of different churches.
 
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Dave-W

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And, of course, the idea that "the gentile church had replaced Israel" isn't the orthodox teaching; the orthodox teaching is that the Church is Israel. God doesn't have two Peoples, but one People. The one People comprised of both Jews and Gentiles.

There is no replacement.

-CryptoLutheran
Sorry - but that is STILL replacement.
 
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Hank77

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Peter addresses his epistle to the "chosen exiles of the dispersion", he uses the word diasporas (Diaspora, dispersion). So the immediate context would be to Jewish Christians of the Diaspora in the region of Anatolia/modern Turkey ("Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia").

But it seems errant to assume that Peter is excluding Gentile Christians, consider for example 1 Peter 2:10, "Once you were not a people, but now you are God's people; once you had not received mercy, but now you have received mercy." A statement that doesn't exactly make a whole lot of sense if Peter is speaking explicitly to Jewish Christians, since obviously as Jews they were a people, the Covenant people and nation called by God at Mt. Horeb.

Instead it seems Peter takes the language of exile and applies it spiritually to the Church. The Jewish Diaspora is was physically in exile, but the Church exists in a spiritual diaspora, as pilgrims, strangers, here in this world.

The holy nation, the royal priesthood, is the Church; comprised of both Jew and Gentile.

Peter was Apostle to the Circumcision and Paul Apostle to the Gentiles; but that doesn't mean that Peter never addressed or engaged with Gentiles, or that Paul never addressed or engaged with Jews--it is clear enough from the Paul's letters that he includes Jewish believers in his letters because he includes all believers in his letters; and in his ministry as described in the Acts of the Apostles Paul regularly spends his time in synagogues and engaging with fellow Jews. Likewise, the Acts records the first Gentile converts coming to the faith from Peter's preaching.

It would, therefore, be errant to assume that Paul only concerns his letters for Gentile Christians, because that is not the case; and equally errant to assume Peter only concerns his letter(s) for Jewish Christians. There are not two classes of Christains, one Jewish and one Gentile--there is instead the one, united, new people in Jesus Christ, who are all sons and daughters of Abraham by faith. The olive tree contains both natural branches and wild branches which have been grafted. Jew and Gentile, circumcised and uncircumcised, together as one People of Jesus Christ.

-CryptoLutheran
Indeed, it was Peter who first witnessed the Gospel to a Gentile, Cornelius the Roman soldier.
 
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Doug Melven

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Taking it the way you suggest, the SAME Exact application has to be done for male and female. No difference. Which would mean that same sex marriage should be absolutely ok.
I don't see how you link same sex marriage to "neither male nor female".
Men are men, women are women, but in the body of Christ there is no male or female.
By your reasoning we would just toss Galatians 3:28 out of God's Word.

Already did: 1 Pet 1.1

"Resides as aliens" refers to those in the Diaspora.
I was going to explain how believers are "aliens" in this world as our citizenship is in Heaven, but ViaCrucis said it better than I.
Instead it seems Peter takes the language of exile and applies it spiritually to the Church. The Jewish Diaspora is was physically in exile, but the Church exists in a spiritual diaspora, as pilgrims, strangers, here in this world.
 
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Dave-W

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I don't see how you link same sex marriage to "neither male nor female".
Men are men, women are women, but in the body of Christ there is no male or female.
By your reasoning we would just toss Galatians 3:28 out of God's Word.
If it makes no difference in the Body who is doing what, Jew or Gentile; then it should make no difference who we marry, In The Body.

BUT - Men can only marry women, and vice versa. But we are all one in the Body. Same way, Jews have one function and gentiles another, yet we are all one in the Body.

Was Israel not one people (until the kingdom split) and yet the Priests and Levites had special functions and limitations?
 
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Doug Melven

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Was Israel not one people (until the kingdom split) and yet the Priests and Levites had special functions and limitations?
I am not quite sure of your point here.

Believers (Jew and Gentile alike) are priests, not of the Order of Aaron but of Melchizedek.
 
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Dave-W

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Hank77

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Peter did not write specifically to that church. He wrote to believing Jews in a number of different churches.
Yes the letter was sent to all those churches/synagogues that were made up of Jews and Gentiles.
Next verse...
1Pe 1:2 Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied.

Col 3:11 Where there is neither Greek nor Jew, circumcision nor uncircumcision, Barbarian, Scythian, bond nor free: but Christ is all, and in all.
Col 3:12 Put on therefore, as the elect of God, holy and beloved, bowels of mercies, kindness, humbleness of mind, meekness, longsuffering;

G1588
ἐκλεκτός
eklektos
ek-lek-tos'
From G1586; select; by implication favorite: - chosen, elect.
 
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Doug Melven

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I just looked, and the listing of saying we are priests are in the letters addressed to Jewish believers:

  1. Romans (1) paul talking about himself (a Jew)
  2. Hebrews (33) To Jews
  3. 1 Peter (2) To Jews
  4. Revelation (3) Not clear on these ones
Did you read any of those verses in Hebrews? Or did you just hope to overwhelm me the amount of verses.
Because all except for a couple verses in Hebrews are about Jesus being a priest in the Order of Melchizedek.
The couple that aren't about Jesus are about the Levitical priesthood and it's unprofitableness.

None of the verses in Hebrews says we are priests.
 
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