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sure u do, because the historical context indicates that 4;15 was after the law ended. You try to use that, to take away from the clear meaning if 5;13.
two different times..
prove me wrong
He has changed which law he is talking about. He dosen'understand or acknowledge that the law in Romans 4:15 is the law issued at Mt Sinai. He is applying the word law to Adam and not the law. His purpose is to confuse the issue and hopefully get someone to agree with him about the law. If that happens whatch him switch to the law issued at Mt Sinai in Horeb.Gee....ummmm why don't u know it?
Ok...the promise fulfilment came after the law, hence no more tutor of gal 3:22-25.
19Why then the law? It was added because of transgressions, until the offspring should come to whom the promise had been made, and it was put in place through angels by an intermediary
So chronologically, the no sin, no transgression of 4;15, was after the law, where the no sin no law of Romans 5;13 was before the law, as it clearly says. SIN WAS IN THE WORLD, FROM ADAM, BEFORE THE LAW.
UNTIL 3;19..UNTIL...THE PROMISE.
Done!
Provide an explanation. You're the law expert remember. If I see your discussion I might have something to say about it.
Howdy. I see you've gotten a warm welcome. Hope to hear more from you as there is a lot in this thread to respond to.
Howdy also. Actually what I have found over the years is that there is a reason the Seventh Day church is at odds with mainline Christianity. It is due to their complete denial of obvious biblical doctrine. During my time showing some that their views are unscriptural, over and over again, it forced me to see just how blatent the denial actually is, which forced me to have to believe there was "outside help", in the formation of their beliefs, to which they adamantly cling too, despite hours of what I call debunking. Forgive the word, no harm intended but i just don't know what other word to apply to one, that has such entrneched resistance, to obvious truth.
All i am looking for is a simple answer, how could Adam's sin, be from the law, if the law was not given yet?
5:13for sin indeed was in the world before the law was given, but sin is not counted where there is no law.
You r arguing from abstract, not me...
3;17This is what I mean: the law, which came 430 years afterward, does not annul a covenant previously ratified by God, so as to make the promise void.
sinai,..... moses, david, stpephen, paul, and hebrews say the law came then.
yet u say the garden.
imputed, counted....
still, how do u reckon the fact, that sin was in the world, before the law was given, how could it be a mosaic transgression?
But you keep forgetting what law is being talked about. You're mixing things in your big mixing bowl.
It is rare to get one of them to listen or even read the Bible. I've seen an SDA pastor in my 10 years on the net leave the organization and change beliefs. A very well founded individual. He and his wife still post here some. They have also posted in the SDA section. Great people. They suffered much at the hands of the SDA folks here.
