Where's the ecumenical council in protestantism?

bbbbbbb

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Luther demanded a council to decide the matter of justification

The church convened the council and it condemned all his errors! That’s where

The Council of Trent was not, by any definition, an ecumenical council and its only authority rested solely in and of itself.
 
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Albion

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The Council of Trent was not, by any definition, an ecumenical council and its only authority rested solely in and of itself.
That's right. After the Great Schism, ecumenical councils were impossible, but the Roman Catholic Church went on calling its own councils "ecumenical councils."
 
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zippy2006

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Luther and the Reformers did not deny the existence of ecumenical councils post-1054. I don't see why Protestants should be allowed to just arbitrarily borrow Orthodox arguments when it suits them. It's not like a more ecumenical Trent would have helped the Lutheran cause.
 
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Ephfourfive

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Rubbish! It was simply denominational meeting of one branch of Christianity.

There is only one true church founded by Christ on Peter and the apostles and their successors is the new covenant body of Christ! Matt 1:18 & Jn 10:16 one fold
 
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bbbbbbb

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There is only one true church founded by Christ on Peter and the apostles and their successors is the new covenant body of Christ! Matt 1:18 & Jn 10:16 one fold

True and it just happens that our brethren in the Eastern Orthodox Churches form part and parcel of that body. It is a great pity that since 1054 there has not been another ecumenical council.
 
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Ephfourfive

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True and it just happens that our brethren in the Eastern Orthodox Churches form part and parcel of that body. It is a great pity that since 1054 there has not been another ecumenical council.

Jews Muslims heretics schismatics modernists apostates are outside the church
 
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bbbbbbb

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Jews Muslims heretics schismatics modernists apostates are outside the church

So? According to your branch of Christianity Protestants of all types and all Eastern Orthodox Christians are outside your church. Thus, it has been impossible since the Great Schism for there to have been an ecumenical council.
 
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Ephfourfive

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So? According to your branch of Christianity Protestants of all types and all Eastern Orthodox Christians are outside your church. Thus, it has been impossible since the Great Schism for there to have been an ecumenical council.

Only one church Jn 10:16
We have councils
 
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zippy2006

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Refresh our recollections of that, please. What Ecumenical Councils on the order of the first seven occurred after 1054?

In 1519 at the disputation of Leipzig Luther was reluctantly forced to admit that even early ecumenical councils contradicted his teaching. His solution was to propose that such councils can err, and that he was still right. Even so, he still held councils to be authoritative. In 1520, in his Letter to the Christian Nobility of the German Nation, he argues that even private Christians, such as himself, should be allowed to call a council to settle disputes. He thought that reserving that power for the Pope was a barrier to reform and was also historically inconsistent. That is, Luther was consistently of the mind that the Pope could be corrected by a council, and that a council needed to be convened to address the situation at hand.

Refresh my recollection. Is '1520' a bigger number or a smaller number than '1054'?

Again, the Protestant objection that Trent doesn't count because it wasn't "ecumenical" (in the sense of including the Eastern Churches) is hogwash. The Protestants of the 16th century would have accepted no such argument. Luther and Calvin believed councils to be fallible but also authoritative (including the first seven). They never rejected late councils on the mere basis of "ecumenicity." Finally, the presence of the East at Trent would not have altered the fate of Lutheranism.
 
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bbbbbbb

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In 1519 at the disputation of Leipzig Luther was reluctantly forced to admit that even early ecumenical councils contradicted his teaching. His solution was to propose that such councils can err, and that he was still right. Even so, he still held councils to be authoritative. In 1520, in his Letter to the Christian Nobility of the German Nation, he argues that even private Christians, such as himself, should be allowed to call a council to settle disputes. He thought that reserving that power for the Pope was a barrier to reform and was also historically inconsistent. That is, Luther was consistently of the mind that the Pope could be corrected by a council, and that a council needed to be convened to address the situation at hand.

Refresh my recollection. Is '1520' a bigger number or a smaller number than '1054'?

Again, the Protestant objection that Trent doesn't count because it wasn't "ecumenical" (in the sense of including the Eastern Churches) is hogwash. The Protestants of the 16th century would have accepted no such argument. Luther and Calvin believed councils to be fallible but also authoritative (including the first seven). They never rejected late councils on the mere basis of "ecumenicity." Finally, the presence of the East at Trent would not have altered the fate of Lutheranism.

Well, the title of this thread specifically cites the word "ecumenical" in council, so the answer to the question posed by the OP is a resounding no. Not only has there been no ecumenical council of the Christian church since the Protestant Reformation, there has not been one since the Great Schism of 1054 and the Roman branch of the Church remains in schism to this very day.
 
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zippy2006

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Well, the title of this thread specifically cites the word "ecumenical" in council, so the answer to the question posed by the OP is a resounding no. Not only has there been no ecumenical council of the Christian church since the Protestant Reformation, there has not been one since the Great Schism of 1054 and the Roman branch of the Church remains in schism to this very day.

It also contains the word "Protestantism," so your answer is a red herring. Even on your own reasoning, the absence of schismatics at a council would not be an impediment to ecumenicity. You've tied yourself up in a knot of contradictions to try to uphold a strained conclusion. Supposing that Catholics and Orthodox understand understand each other to be in schism (which they apparently do), this would not prevent either group from holding an ecumenical council, and Catholics have certainly done so.
 
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Albion

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In 1519 at the disputation of Leipzig Luther was reluctantly forced to admit that even early ecumenical councils contradicted his teaching. His solution was to propose that such councils can err, and that he was still right. Even so, he still held councils to be authoritative. In 1520, in his Letter to the Christian Nobility of the German Nation, he argues that even private Christians, such as himself, should be allowed to call a council to settle disputes.
He thought that reserving that power for the Pope was a barrier to reform and was also historically inconsistent.
However, none of that indicates either that there were any Ecumenical Councils after 1054 or that Luther thought that there were any. There are all sorts of church councils, you know, but that doesn't make them Ecumenical Councils such as the famous first seven are considered to be.
 
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ViaCrucis

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Matt 16:18 is the foundation scripture!
You got peter?

Innovative doctrines and interpretations in regard to this passage is not a particularly good place to build a foundation of ecclesiology.

The doctrine of Petrine supremacy is a novel innovation, and not the historic teaching of the Holy Catholic Church which Christ founded.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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zippy2006

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Innovative doctrines and interpretations in regard to this passage is not a particularly good place to build a foundation of ecclesiology.

The doctrine of Petrine supremacy is a novel innovation, and not the historic teaching of the Holy Catholic Church which Christ founded.

-CryptoLutheran

When do you suppose this "novelty" was introduced?
 
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