- Jul 22, 2014
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let's stop right there... i think I've read enough. the fact that this is your first point suggests it is your strongest point but it lacks any real study.
to start James 1:25 "perfect" is masculine, not neuter, so whatever told you that is wrong. How do I know this? because "law" is masculine not neuter and adjectived (like perfect) agree with case, number and gender from its head noun. So whatever "law" is all adjectives describing it are the same. James 1:25 "law" is masculine in gender, singular in number and accusative in case... so James 1:25 "perfect" is the exact same.
your mistake perhaps is that they carry the same inflection. The root word is strongs 5046
"teleios" but in context James 1:25 says "teleion" which is the exact same in 1 Cor 13:10 (also "teleion") but the difference is 1 Cor 13:10 is neuter, singular, nominative. So what's that mean? does it mean it points to a head noun that is also neuter, singular, nominative? well have a fun time trying to find one... in actuality, it points to what's calls a substantive adjective meaning it is abstract and acts by itself (this is unique to neuter nominative adjectives without head nouns) So 1 Cor 13:10's "perfect" refers to something abstract and "the perfect" is a suitable way of translating it. As an abstract, it can point to anything fitting for an abstract but rather than just filling in the blank we should look for something that can be responsibly supported through scripture and if we are honest an eschatological event is the only thing that can be.
First, I believe the Bible does not say anything different in the English vs. the Biblical Greek. So whatever it says in English, it was taken from the Biblical Greek. It's when people's interpretations upon what the Biblical Greek says is where we run into a problem. They favor a dead language they don't know over the English language (Which is a language they do know).
Second, nobody on the planet today truly knows Biblical Greek with 100% certainty like Paul did. It's a dead language. So we are making guesses at best. At the end of the day, we have to be faithful to the Word of God in what it says in our own language and not a language that is not our own that we never grew up with and it is no longer in operation today. Sure, there is Modern Greek, but it is not the same as Biblical Greek. We also cannot assume scholars are not biased to their religious views when they give us certain interpretations in various Lexicons, either. But we can read the Bible in English and know it in English because nobody can pull a fast one on us with the English language. We know English. But we really don't know Biblical Greek.
Three, the word "perfect" and the word "glass / mirror" are both used in James 1 and 1 Corinthians 13. Except James 1 defines it as the Word of God. 1 Corinthians 13 defines how love will last forever. The Bible helps us to love God in the proper way. For Jesus says if you love me, keep my commandments (John 14:15). All Scripture is profitable for instruction in righteousness so that the man of God may be perfect unto all good works (See: 2 Timothy 3:16-17).
Four, the point about 1 Corinthians 13 and James 1 (Which I believe is significant and clear to see for those who want to see it) is not the only point I presented for the defense of the cessation of the miraculous gifts. I have provided other points based on Scripture, as well. So it is not scant evidence as you claimed before whereby I am basing my belief upon here. It is a systematic biblical belief, my friend.
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