You didn't answer my question. I am asking do you think those who have a different moral opinion to you even if this may be offensive to you, are their moral views valid under a subjective system. I agree that you personally can feel that the other person's view is horrible, but putting your personal input aside and looking at the subjective moral system as a whole are all views allowed to be presented as valid views at the table of subjective morality. If not why.
A logical proposition is to be self-supporting so the evidence is the logical conclusion of the proposition. One or more propositions are made and a logical conclusion will follow. The propositions presented are not opinions but assumed truths for example.
"All men are mortal" or "Socrates is a man." therefore Socrates is mortal.
It is the same for the moral argument for objective morality. We all accept that objective morality cannot come from the subject (humans). That morals only apply to people and that moral behavior has to be reasons. A person cannot just immediately know what is best without reasoning. But we also know that human reason is fallible. Therefore it logically follows that objective morality needs to come from a rational and transcendent being. This helps define the argument and further support may be needed.
I think you're missing the point. If you read the article is it's saying that
moral truths don’t seem to be subjective — that is, made true solely by an individual’s whims and feelings — either.
If someone announces his or her belief that undeserved suffering is morally good, this person is mistaken.
So it is saying that people recognize that there are moral truths despite people's opinions. That if someone proclaims their personal opinion that certain moral acts that we all know are wrong were good according we know that person is objectively wrong.
Yes I have read it but I think you haven't. If you add the rest of that heading which says
Morality is subjective preference, but it can be objectively wrong. This puts things into context. That all humans re a subjective vessel for anything even the factual physical world. This is our first filter that perceives the world through our sense so of course, it is going to be subjective in that sense. We are not robots so even if there are objective morals we choose them rather than being forced or programed to only follow one thing.
But if you read the article it is actually saying that there needs to be some external source for our morality so that it can be measured and not based on personal opinion. The article still supports an independent measure of morality. It just tries to place it in non-transcendent sources like caring for others and what they value. But its still sourcing morality in some form of objective independent measure.
You're creating a logical fallacy (false/irrelevant conclusion, strawman, non sequitur) to claim a logical fallacy lol. You are assuming that surveys are only interested in a yes or no response for quantity and factor in questions to determine people's beliefs and attitudes. The linked survey posed a number of questions to determine why and how people believed in their moral positions.
As stated it was not just a simple response of agreeing with objective morality but also defining why they did. So it is a quality survey and not just a quantity one. But I can understand you want to dismiss the survey as it supports what I said that most people know that morals are objective. At least by trying to dismiss it you show that the results are a threat.
You are underestimating what is being said. People are not pretending at all. It is saying that the case for objective morality is strong that even those who may take an anti-realist position cannot deny that there is a case to moral realism. If anything it exposes the anti-realist position as being pretense as they hold their position despite a good case not to.
In light of my rebuttal, I think it only fair that you explain why you think the survey and support for objective morality being believed by most people is wrong rather than just making an assertion.
Yet you say to me that appeal to how people react/live in their moral lives is not evidence. If this is the case then how humans react like morals are objective must also stand as support.
Nevertheless, I am not sure what point you are trying to make by using animals and their behavior whether its (moral or instinctual for surviving) show how unreal and impractical subjective morality is as a measure for what is right and wrong.
Yet it seems that you can appeal to articles that show philosophers support subjective morality to support subjective morality but when I post support showing that more actually don't support subjective morality it is somehow an argument from popularity.
By the way, I was using the article you linked and it actually supports what I was saying that most philosophers believe that moral realism/objective morality is more of a realistic position to take despite it saying that some support subjective morality.
If we are going to use logical fallacies to reject an argument. Using the fact that there are different views about morality is an obvious logical fallacy as it doesn't discount that morals are not objective no more than saying people who have subjective views about objective physical objects don't show that the physical object is objectively real. IE subjective view the earth is flat doesn't negate the objective view the earth is a sphere.