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Whence sola scriptura?

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A. believer

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seebs said:
So? The only way we know which things are scripture, and which aren't, is tradition. Scripture and tradition depend on each other. I don't see any way to conclude that a given set of texts is "scripture" except by being told.
Indeed, we inherited the canon of Scripture through tradition, but it's by the persuasion of the Holy Spirit that we know that Scripture is truly the Word of God. Since Scripture is the product of the direct revelation of the Holy Spirit, it can only, ultimately be authenticated by God, Himself. For God can swear by no one greater than Himself. (Hebrews 6:13) We don't know that Scripture is Scripture because of the word of man, but by the persuasion of God's own self-authenticating testimony to our hearts.
 
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A. believer

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orthedoxy said:
Sola Scriptura is a doctrine.
By believing Sola Scriptura aren’t you saying you can’t come up with doctrines outside the Bible?
No, orthedoxy, that's not what we're saying. Why do you keep hammering this point when you've been repeatedly told that it's a misrepresentation of our position? How seriously can you expect to be taken when you insist on knocking down straw men over and over again?

Scripture, as a category, is infallible (incapable of error.) Oral tradition, as a category, is fallible (capable of being erroneous.) Those are the basic, foundational truths that must be understood in order to understand the doctrine of sola Scriptura. This doctrine has nothing to do with an "infallible pronouncement" as to the doctrine itself.
 
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seebs

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A. believer said:
Human knowledge is always fallible because humans are, by nature, fallible. There's no such thing as infallible human knowledge--at least not this side of heaven, anyway. But that doesn't mean that humans can't know things correctly.

But it does mean that we can't know whether or not we know correctly.

Extra credit question, one point: Spot the epistemologist in this picture.
 
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seebs

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A. believer said:
Indeed, we inherited the canon of Scripture through tradition, but it's by the persuasion of the Holy Spirit that we know that Scripture is truly the Word of God. Since Scripture is the product of the direct revelation of the Holy Spirit, it can only, ultimately be authenticated by God, Himself. For God can swear by no one greater than Himself. (Hebrews 6:13) We don't know that Scripture is Scripture because of the word of man, but by the persuasion of God's own self-authenticating testimony to our hearts.

This is very similar to why I accept the Bible as anything other than "a bunch of stuff some people wrote down" - because I recognize Him in the Gospels. This seems simultaneously sufficient and exhaustive.

Given this, how do we resolve His apparent decision to persuade different people that different sets of texts are Scripture? Or, for that matter, how do we resolve people like me, whom He has apparently led to believe that the Bible is not "the Word of God" (capital W), but rather "the words of God" (lowercase W)?

What do you do when someone seems to be led to accept more or less material as "Scripture" than you do? I am rarely led to consider something "infallible", so much as "true". If it's true, then fallibility really doesn't enter the picture.
 
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InquisitorKind

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orthedoxy said:
Sola Scriptura is a doctrine.
By believing Sola Scriptura aren’t you saying you can’t come up with doctrines outside the Bible?
I'd be more willing to address this if you would demonstrate that you honestly found this question necessary after the explanations in this thread and if you would explain in more detail what you're asking. Specifically, what do you mean by "doctrines outside the Bible"? That can be interpreted in at least two ways.

~Matt
 
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seebs

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InquisitorKind said:
Yet you can know that you can't know?

Yup.

This may sound like a contradiction, but it's not; I think it was Russell who did the theoretical work in descriptors and categories that allows us to make claims like this meaningfully.
 
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A. believer

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seebs said:
But it does mean that we can't know whether or not we know correctly.

Extra credit question, one point: Spot the epistemologist in this picture.
Apparently one of those supposed errors you've found in Scripture would be Biblical epistemology. Scripture says God has revealed some things sufficiently so that we can know them, but you've rejected that assertion in favor of skepticism. You may consider yourself an epistemologist, but there's nothing remotely Christian about skepticism as an epistemology. (And Bertrand Russell would be ashamed of you, as well. ;) )
 
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II Paradox II

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seebs said:
This may sound like a contradiction, but it's not; I think it was Russell who did the theoretical work in descriptors and categories that allows us to make claims like this meaningfully.
Would you mind articulating which theories in particular you are alluding to here? I am not intimately familiar with Russell's logic but I could probably keep up well enough if you pointed out in more detail what you are referring to...

ken
 
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A. believer

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seebs said:
This is very similar to why I accept the Bible as anything other than "a bunch of stuff some people wrote down" - because I recognize Him in the Gospels. This seems simultaneously sufficient and exhaustive.
But only selectively, it seems.

Given this, how do we resolve His apparent decision to persuade different people that different sets of texts are Scripture? Or, for that matter, how do we resolve people like me, whom He has apparently led to believe that the Bible is not "the Word of God" (capital W), but rather "the words of God" (lowercase W)?
According to Scripture, itself, God entrusts His written revelation to His covenant people, and He leads His people, collectively, to rightly discern the limits of the canon. The NT church inherited the OT canon from the OT church--Israel, so it's to them that we look for affirmation of the correct canon. That's why the Protestant church holds to the shorter OT canon. Just because Roman Catholics aren't persuaded doesn't mean God hasn't revealed it.

As for you, you've rejected what Scripture says about itself. This isn't the persuasion of God. God doesn't persuade people to reject what He's revealed.

What do you do when someone seems to be led to accept more or less material as "Scripture" than you do? I am rarely led to consider something "infallible", so much as "true". If it's true, then fallibility really doesn't enter the picture.
Again, I learn from Scripture that God leads His church collectively, and since this issue has long been settled in the church, I'd consider any "lone ranger Christian" arguments to be inherently suspect. But I haven't found anyone who shares my presuppositions about ultimate truth who does accept any more or less material as Scripture than I do, so that's a non-issue. If I lived during a time when there was still any real debate going on in the church about the canon, though, my confidence would probably be much smaller than it is for me now.
 
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seebs

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A. believer said:
Apparently one of those supposed errors you've found in Scripture would be Biblical epistemology. Scripture says God has revealed some things sufficiently so that we can know them, but you've rejected that assertion in favor of skepticism. You may consider yourself an epistemologist, but there's nothing remotely Christian about skepticism as an epistemology. (And Bertrand Russell would be ashamed of you, as well. ;) )

I think the word "know" is ambiguous; in the sense in which most people use it, of course we can know things. I'm a little cautious about the assertion.

Skepticism in and of itself is not Christian, but then, most epistemologies aren't. Skepticism does not, it turns out, provide an insurmountable barrier to Christianity.
 
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seebs

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II Paradox II said:
Would you mind articulating which theories in particular you are alluding to here? I am not intimately familiar with Russell's logic but I could probably keep up well enough if you pointed out in more detail what you are referring to...

It's not really in my fields, but basically, there are statements about things, and statements about statements, and "we don't know anything" is a statement about statements, but the "anything" discussed is statements about things.
 
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seebs

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A. believer said:
But only selectively, it seems.

I'm not sure what you mean by this.

According to Scripture, itself, God entrusts His written revelation to His covenant people, and He leads His people, collectively, to rightly discern the limits of the canon.

Well, then we have a problem, because His people don't agree on the limits of the canon.

The NT church inherited the OT canon from the OT church--Israel, so it's to them that we look for affirmation of the correct canon. That's why the Protestant church holds to the shorter OT canon. Just because Roman Catholics aren't persuaded doesn't mean God hasn't revealed it.

And they say, if memory serves, "just because some people had political reasons to remove some books doesn't mean God didn't reveal the full canon".

Interestingly, people on both sides of that debate have clearly shown the fruits of the Holy Spirit.

As for you, you've rejected what Scripture says about itself. This isn't the persuasion of God. God doesn't persuade people to reject what He's revealed.

For 1500 years, it was generally agreed that "Scripture" included those extra books you reject. You reject them. In 1600, everyone agreed that those books were God-breathed Scripture. You now reject it... But you say it's the persuasion of God.

It seems to me that there is a great deal of disagreement over what God has revealed, and to whom, and when. This is, in the end, why I'm not Catholic; because I don't believe that any earthly authority is infallible.

However, I reject your authority to tell me what God has revealed for the same reason I reject the Pope's authority to tell me what God has revealed. I'm still looking, and still learning.

Again, I learn from Scripture that God leads His church collectively, and since this issue has long been settled in the church, I'd consider any "lone ranger Christian" arguments to be inherently suspect.

This issue obviously isn't settled, given that a majority of Christians worldwide disagree with you on how many books the Bible has.

Anyway, I'm hardly alone in this; my position, while not very common, is certainly not unique.

But I haven't found anyone who shares my presuppositions about ultimate truth who does accept any more or less material as Scripture than I do, so that's a non-issue. If I lived during a time when there was still any real debate going on in the church about the canon, though, my confidence would probably be much smaller than it is for me now.

Could you articulate more specifically your presuppositions about ultimate truth? I would be very interested in seeing what they are.
 
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A. believer

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seebs said:
I think the word "know" is ambiguous; in the sense in which most people use it, of course we can know things. I'm a little cautious about the assertion.

Skepticism in and of itself is not Christian, but then, most epistemologies aren't. Skepticism does not, it turns out, provide an insurmountable barrier to Christianity.



You're right that "most epistemologies" aren't Christian. The only Christian epistemology is that which starts with the revelation of God as the unassailable premise, and reasons from there. All other epistemologies presuppose man's ability to reason autonomously and are rooted in rebellion against the Creator. Even those who've submitted to the Lordship of Christ are generally not conscious of the ingrained habits of autonomous reason, and often rely upon it as an unexamined premise in their thought processes. Phillip Johnson, the founder of the "intelligent design" movement, which has made such inroads in bringing to light the unquestioned philosophical premises behind evolutionary dogma, relates in his book, The Right Questions: Truth, Meaning, and Public Debate, how it took a catastrophic event in his life, a stroke, to have realized the false foundation of intellectual self-reliance he'd been building upon.
Kate's song was asking the right questions! What was the solid rock on which I stood? I had always prided myself on being self-reliant, and my brain was what I relied on. Now the self with its brain was exposed as the shaky instrument it had always been. I was a Christian, even an ardent one after my worldy fashion, but now all the smoke was blown away and I saw Truth close up. I knew myself to be not so much a believer in Christ as a skeptic about everything else, a recovering rationalist who had lost his faith in the world's definition of reason, but who knew only the world's Jesus. That Jesus seemed too sentimental a thing to bear the full weight of life at its most desperate moment . . .
In Greek the "Word" is the Logos, the root of logic. That word encompasses both the human activity of reasoning and the divine foundation from which logic must begin. Our logic cannot supply its own beginning. Logic is merely a way of reasoning correctly from premises to conclusions. The premises must come from elsewhere. Rationalism is inherently self-defeating, because the rationalist must pretend to derive his first premises by logical reasoning which always rests on other premises. Empiricism faces the same dilemma when it becomes a total system because the empiricist always needs to know more than he can observe. Premise-evading philosophies like logical positivism or scientific materialism last only until the dilemma becomes too evident to be concealed, and then they wither." (pp. 87 and 89)
I'm not sure what you mean by this.
I mean that, once you conclude that Scripture is fallible, you render it in your own mind as unreliable. You then subject the Word of God to your own judgment as to which parts are truly of God and which parts aren't.




Well, then we have a problem, because His people don't agree on the limits of the canon.
Even in light of any disagreements about the canon at any given time in history, it isn't a genuine problem, since the extra books accepted by some don't have any bearing on Christian doctrine. The apocryphal books accepted as canonical by what's arguably one branch of the church, are historical narratives (which, incidentally, by known errors are proven fallible, and hence non-canonical). Despite what Roman Catholics see as support for purgatory in the book of II Maccabees, this narrative doesn't offer the support they want it to, because according to their interpretation of the narrative, it would have men who've died as a result of God's direct and immediate judgment for what Roman Catholics would classify as mortal sin (idolatry) being regarded as undergoing purgatorial cleansing. This is inconsistent with the Roman Catholic doctrine of purgatory.

And they say, if memory serves, "just because some people had political reasons to remove some books doesn't mean God didn't reveal the full canon".
Apparently some of your confusion is a result of uncritically accepting the historical arguments of Roman Catholics. It is demonstrably proven that there were two distinct traditions within the church from the fourth to the sixteenth century whereby the popular tradition was to regard the apocrypha as canonical, while the scholarly tradition was to disregard these books as such. The reasons for disregarding the apocrypha are unassailable, and it was the theologians (the ones who actually made a serious study of Scripture) who did disregard it. If you're interested in pursuing this, this well-documented article would be an excellent place to start.

Interestingly, people on both sides of that debate have clearly shown the fruits of the Holy Spirit.
Indeed, certainly someone can misidentify some writing as part of the Word of God and still be justified by God through faith and, hence, indwelt by the Holy Spirit. But this has no bearing on my point.

For 1500 years, it was generally agreed that "Scripture" included those extra books you reject. You reject them. In 1600, everyone agreed that those books were God-breathed Scripture. You now reject it... But you say it's the persuasion of God.
It was "generally agreed" by some and roundly rejected by others--by those who had greater knowledge on the matter. But since the issue is that of discerning truth from Scripture, and since no significant doctrinal truth claims are made from these books, even those who accept them wouldn't be led seriously astray by the writings alone.

It seems to me that there is a great deal of disagreement over what God has revealed, and to whom, and when. This is, in the end, why I'm not Catholic; because I don't believe that any earthly authority is infallible.
Neither do I.

However, I reject your authority to tell me what God has revealed for the same reason I reject the Pope's authority to tell me what God has revealed. I'm still looking, and still learning.
I don't speak with any presumed authority, except the authority of the Word of God when I rightly represent what it says. I don't expect you to take anything I say on blind faith.

This issue obviously isn't settled, given that a majority of Christians worldwide disagree with you on how many books the Bible has.
Your "majority" comment alone could lead to a whole debate about how one defines a Christian, etc., but again--even accepting the statement that the larger community of those who profess Christian faith accepts a larger canon than the community I'm a part of (Roman Catholic vs. evangelical), I've addressed why that's not a signficant point. I can confidently and reasonably say that a) they're wrong in accepting those books, and b) those books have little to no bearing on the interpretation of those writings that all church communities accept as canonical Scripture.

Anyway, I'm hardly alone in this; my position, while not very common, is certainly not unique.
If you're referring to your position that Scripture is merely "the words of God" and not the infallible Word of God as He chose to reveal Himself to the post-apostolic church, then it may not be entirely unique, but it's contradicted by Scripture, itself, as Jason1646 already demonstrated to you in a thread in the IDD a couple of months ago.

Could you articulate more specifically your presuppositions about ultimate truth? I would be very interested in seeing what they are.




Okay. They're partially summarized in the prologue to the Gospel of John:
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was in the beginning with God. 3 All things were made through Him, and without Him nothing was made that was made. 4 In Him was life, and the life was the light of men. 5 And the light shines in the darkness, and the darkness did not *comprehend it.

6 There was a man sent from God, whose name was John. 7 This man came for a witness, to bear witness of the Light, that all through him might believe. 8 He was not that Light, but was sent to bear witness of that Light. 9 That *was the true Light which gives light to every man coming into the world.

10 He was in the world, and the world was made through Him, and the world did not know Him. 11 He came to His *own, and His *own did not receive Him. 12 But as many as received Him, to them He gave the right to become children of God, to those who believe in His name: 13 who were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.

14 And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth.

This account of man rejecting the light, of course, is made more clear throughout Scripture which teaches us that, as a result of the rebellion of our first forefathers, every part of man's nature is depraved by sin, and that apart from spiritual regeneration, man is engaged in a moral rebellion against his Creator. We suppress the truth God has made manifest to all men through nature and conscience because we're at enmity with God; we desire moral autonomy from Him.
 
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II Paradox II

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seebs said:
It's not really in my fields, but basically, there are statements about things, and statements about statements, and "we don't know anything" is a statement about statements, but the "anything" discussed is statements about things.
ok, a few thoughts (admittedly basic ones, I never really got deep into logic):

1) Regarding your previous comments that "[font=&quot]But it does mean that we can't know whether or not we know correctly"[font=&quot], don't you think that your statement itself goes against the notion of fuzzy sets developed since the time Russell? I.e... that human knowledge might have partial membership in the set of things known as well as things not known instead of just being known or unknown in a binary sense?

In essence, the feel I get from your post to A. Believer is that your skepticism is being applied inconsistently depending on the outsome you desire to get. With regard to her truth claim that we cannot know infallibly, but still know, she is appealing to a notion of fuzzy sets. However, your response to her implies that her knowledge of whether she is correct or not must be either true or false (1 or 0) instead of .91 or .73 or some other in-between truth value. IMO - if I am reading this correctly, there is no good reason to apply a strict binary truth value to her knowledge of her knowledge if you grant the fuzziness of her factual knowledge in the first place.

2) As for your discussion with IK and myself, you made the point that your comment was not meaningless because of a distinction you cited between statements about about statements and statements about things. To be honest, I'm not sure what I think of this particular argument. Russell does make the distinction between truths known by description and by acquaintence, knowledge of truths by description of words and knowledge via a relation to the world "as it is".

The primary problem I see with your argument as you made it is that it seems to deny the very thing Russell was arguing for. Russell's distinction was meant to give a plausible ground for foundationalism by positing a real relation between our minds and atomic facts about the world through acqauintence. It is this relation which lets us actually have some knowledge that we are correct, as we have some connection to the real world. Your argument, on the other hand, seems to be denying foundationalism and the notion of acquaintive knowledge by saying that we cannot know whether we know correctly. This would seem to imply that our knowledge is never in any sense based on a primitive relation to the real world. If it was, then we would have some ability to know whether we know something correctly because at least *some* of our knowledge would be based in a relation to what truly exists.

3) Russell did have a notion that one could affirm the falsity of a statement while not simultaneously affirming the existence of the entities talked about in the statement. It seems to me that this perhaps is more what you were thinking of. I had some thoughts on this, but they were too undeveloped to bring up. Perhaps as I think about it more I'll post something up...
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seebs

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A. believer said:
You're right that "most epistemologies" aren't Christian. The only Christian epistemology is that which starts with the revelation of God as the unassailable premise, and reasons from there.

The reason I say that epistemologies aren't Christian is the same reason I say that animals aren't Christian, and physics isn't Christian; it's simply unrelated.

It seems to me that a great number of Christians have found their way to the faith without accepting revelation as an unassailable premise, and done quite well. Indeed, the entire concept of apologetics rejects this premise.

All other epistemologies presuppose man's ability to reason autonomously and are rooted in rebellion against the Creator.

This is absolutely, totally, wrong.

There is no rebellion in reason. God gave us reason.

In Greek the "Word" is the Logos, the root of logic. That word encompasses both the human activity of reasoning and the divine foundation from which logic must begin. Our logic cannot supply its own beginning.

Indeed. This is the foundational problem of epistemology.

Logic is merely a way of reasoning correctly from premises to conclusions. The premises must come from elsewhere. Rationalism is inherently self-defeating, because the rationalist must pretend to derive his first premises by logical reasoning which always rests on other premises. Empiricism faces the same dilemma when it becomes a total system because the empiricist always needs to know more than he can observe. Premise-evading philosophies like logical positivism or scientific materialism last only until the dilemma becomes too evident to be concealed, and then they wither." (pp. 87 and 89)

Indeed. This is fairly obvious, and I've been arguing it for years.

However, these tools, while insufficient, are necessary. You cannot succeed without them.

I mean that, once you conclude that Scripture is fallible, you render it in your own mind as unreliable. You then subject the Word of God to your own judgment as to which parts are truly of God and which parts aren't.

But I reject the claim that the Bible is "the Word". It is "the words". The Bible is not Jesus. I can be saved by Jesus by His very nature, without ever seeing a Bible or hearing any words from it; I cannot be saved by the Bible unless Jesus has that nature.

Even the Bible acknowledges that the nature of God can be learned from His creation.

I am not judging the Word. I am judging material things of this world which were offered to me as substitutes for Him.

Even in light of any disagreements about the canon at any given time in history, it isn't a genuine problem, since the extra books accepted by some don't have any bearing on Christian doctrine. The apocryphal books accepted as canonical by what's arguably one branch of the church, are historical narratives (which, incidentally, by known errors are proven fallible, and hence non-canonical).

What do you consider an "error"? The Bible is full of claims about the natural world which are simply not true. We can go to great lengths to twist words to get away from four-legged insects, or we can just admit that the scope of Biblical infallibility is faith and morals.

Apparently some of your confusion is a result of uncritically accepting the historical arguments of Roman Catholics.

It seems odd that you would assert that my positions are "uncritical", especially given the amount of Catholic doctrine I don't acceptt.

It is demonstrably proven that there were two distinct traditions within the church from the fourth to the sixteenth century whereby the popular tradition was to regard the apocrypha as canonical, while the scholarly tradition was to disregard these books as such.

I think "demonstrably proven" is a fairly solid over-claim. If you want to say there's a reasonable argument for it, go right ahead.

Indeed, certainly someone can misidentify some writing as part of the Word of God and still be justified by God through faith and, hence, indwelt by the Holy Spirit. But this has no bearing on my point.

It matters a lot to me, because it suggests strongly that I should not trust anyone's claims about what is, or is not, part of Scripture. Why should I trust the Catholic Church? Why should I trust you? Should I believe the scribes who translated the King James, or should I believe the people who excised the Apocrypha from it later? Should I be listening to the Ethiopians, who have more books? What of someone who reads through the writings of the Early Church Fathers, and finds a paragraph so perfect it practically burns the page with its perfection, and asserts that this one paragraph was clearly inspired by God?

My answer is simple: I don't believe any of the people out there claiming a source of infallible truth are right, and I test everything, just as Scripture suggests.

I don't speak with any presumed authority, except the authority of the Word of God when I rightly represent what it says. I don't expect you to take anything I say on blind faith.

Okay. So, what's the extra-Biblical, non-tradition, evidence that the Bible is infallible? I understand the reasons to reject the authority of Tradition.

You come to me with a book, and say "this is infallible". Why should I believe you? I shouldn't use the book; that would be begging the question.

What is the non-circular source for this belief? I have never found one.

I believe the Bible to be sound, not because someone told me, but because I recognize one of the people in it as someone I know.

If you're referring to your position that Scripture is merely "the words of God" and not the infallible Word of God as He chose to reveal Himself to the post-apostolic church, then it may not be entirely unique, but it's contradicted by Scripture, itself, as Jason1646 already demonstrated to you in a thread in the IDD a couple of months ago.

That wasn't a "demonstration", that was an "assertion". I was not convinced by it, and indeed, it strengthened my belief that calling the Bible the "Word" is idolatrous.

The Bible is the words of God, the trail of breadcrumbs which the Holy Spirit illuminates that we may find our way home.

This account of man rejecting the light, of course, is made more clear throughout Scripture which teaches us that, as a result of the rebellion of our first forefathers, every part of man's nature is depraved by sin, and that apart from spiritual regeneration, man is engaged in a moral rebellion against his Creator. We suppress the truth God has made manifest to all men through nature and conscience because we're at enmity with God; we desire moral autonomy from Him.

Oddly, when I read the Bible, I see it teaching that God's creation is good.
 
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seebs

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II Paradox II said:
1) Regarding your previous comments that "[font=&quot]But it does mean that we can't know whether or not we know correctly"[/font][font=&quot], don't you think that your statement itself goes against the notion of fuzzy sets developed since the time Russell? I.e... that human knowledge might have partial membership in the set of things known as well as things not known instead of just being known or unknown in a binary sense?


Indeed, it might. However, it seems like a pretty solid bet.

In essence, the feel I get from your post to A. Believer is that your skepticism is being applied inconsistently depending on the outsome you desire to get. With regard to her truth claim that we cannot know infallibly, but still know, she is appealing to a notion of fuzzy sets. However, your response to her implies that her knowledge of whether she is correct or not must be either true or false (1 or 0) instead of .91 or .73 or some other in-between truth value. IMO - if I am reading this correctly, there is no good reason to apply a strict binary truth value to her knowledge of her knowledge if you grant the fuzziness of her factual knowledge in the first place.

An interesting point. I guess, when people talk about "knowing" and "infallibility", I expect confidence of 100%, no less. Anything less is not exactly knowledge, but belief of some sort.

The primary problem I see with your argument as you made it is that it seems to deny the very thing Russell was arguing for. Russell's distinction was meant to give a plausible ground for foundationalism by positing a real relation between our minds and atomic facts about the world through acqauintence. It is this relation which lets us actually have some knowledge that we are correct, as we have some connection to the real world. Your argument, on the other hand, seems to be denying foundationalism and the notion of acquaintive knowledge by saying that we cannot know whether we know correctly.

Yes. I think Russell was wrong. (On a number of things, in fact.) However, his insights into the nature of meta-statements are still useful.

This would seem to imply that our knowledge is never in any sense based on a primitive relation to the real world. If it was, then we would have some ability to know whether we know something correctly because at least *some* of our knowledge would be based in a relation to what truly exists.

This is where I think it breaks down. I think almost everything we believe is based on a primitive relation to the real world; I just don't think we can ever demonstrate or support that belief.

3) Russell did have a notion that one could affirm the falsity of a statement while not simultaneously affirming the existence of the entities talked about in the statement. It seems to me that this perhaps is more what you were thinking of. I had some thoughts on this, but they were too undeveloped to bring up. Perhaps as I think about it more I'll post something up...

Interesting!
 
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II Paradox II

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seebs said:
An interesting point. I guess, when people talk about "knowing" and "infallibility", I expect confidence of 100%, no less. Anything less is not exactly knowledge, but belief of some sort.
of all the things you brought up, it seems that many issues come back to this notion. I have yet to fully make up my mind (or even have a definite course) with regard to this particular issue. Interestingly, I ran into a Catholic a while back who posited that all true knowledge must be infallible. Rather interesting in that he ran afoul of both myself and fellow Catholics on this point. Unfortunately, he left before I had a chance to really look into the issue, but it does seem to be rather central.

anyways, it was interesting talking to you, perhaps we'll run into these issue once more...

ken
 
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seebs said:
An interesting point. I guess, when people talk about "knowing" and "infallibility", I expect confidence of 100%, no less. Anything less is not exactly knowledge, but belief of some sort.
Infallibility doesn't refer to knowledge, itself, but to the nature of the source of information. I'm defining knowledge, though, as a belief with ample justification for that belief. But as humans, we know fallibly, because we're fallible. What does it mean to have 100% confidence in our knowledge?
 
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