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When the Pope is to be taken infallibly

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BAFRIEND

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Wikipedia:

For a teaching by a pope or ecumenical council to be recognized as infallible, the teaching must make it clear that it is definitive and binding. There is not any specific phrasing required for this, but it is usually indicated by one or both of the following: (1) a verbal formula indicating that this teaching is definitive (such as "We declare, decree and define..."), or (2) an accompanying anathema stating that anyone who deliberately dissents is outside the Catholic Church. For example, in Munificentissimus Deus, Pope Pius XII's infallible definition regarding the Assumption of the Virgin Mary, there are attached these words: "Hence if anyone, which God forbid, should dare willfully to deny or to call into doubt that which We have defined, let him know that he has fallen away completely from the divine and Catholic Faith."

I thought this was interesting. This can be used when folks throw the infallible propoganda our way.
 

BAFRIEND

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Yeah...to my knowledge it hasn't been used in a while? Who was the last Pope to use it, and for what purpose?
I am not certain but the last I heard, from the Catholic Answer Book was on St. Mary in 1870. It may be that JPII did something with NFP but I am not sure.
 
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QuantaCura

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That's actually a pretty good explanation form wiki.

If we think about the reason for papal infallibility, it's easier to see when it applies.

Since the Pope is the highest authority, he is the "court of last resort" for doctrinal disputes. Since he has the final say, his say must be right or else it is not the final say at all and the truth of the faith can never be definitively ascertained. The Church would be bound to error and the word of God and its authentic meaning would be corrupted or at least subject to endless debate. St. Francis de Sales explains this well here:

http://www.angelfire.com/ms/seanie/fds/fds_church1.html

As both the First and Second Vatican Council's explain, the papal declarations are infallible whenever they definitively bind the entire Church to believe or hold some doctrine on faith and morals. In the past, instead of the word infallible, you might see "irreformable" or less often something to the extent of "unappeallable." If the Pope says that the whole Church must definitively hold or believe x, than it is infallible--that's how you know.

It bears pointing out that this is not limited to dogmatic definitions, those that must be believed with a divine and Catholic faith, but also those that must simply be definitively held by the whole Church. Pope John Paul II's solemn condemnation of abortion in Evangelium vitae and his definitive ruling on the all-male priesthood, while not dogmatic definitions, are still definitive, irreformable, binding on the whole Church, and therefore infallible. Likewise, the Pope is not giving a new doctrine, but confirming an immutable truth that has been handed down by the whole Church.

Despite popular misconception, Popes have exercised this authority quite often, especially before 1870. The papal magisterium was exercised much differently in the past. Popes tended not to issue theological discourses in the form of periodic encyclicals like Popes have done in the past few centuries. Rather, they acted as a court of last resort for doctrinal disputes and almost the only teaching they would give to the universal Church was the definitive, binding variety covered by papal infallibility. They even often just gave the definitive ruling without any explanation at all.
 
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QuantaCura

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Yeah...to my knowledge it hasn't been used in a while? Who was the last Pope to use it, and for what purpose?

John Paul II:

Ordinatio Sacerdotalis:

Wherefore, in order that all doubt may be removed regarding a matter of great importance, a matter which pertains to the Church's divine constitution itself, in virtue of my ministry of confirming the brethren (cf. Lk 22:32) I declare that the Church has no authority whatsoever to confer priestly ordination on women and that this judgment is to be definitively held by all the Church's faithful.

Evangelium Vitae:

Therefore, by the authority which Christ conferred upon Peter and his Successors, and in communion with the Bishops of the Catholic Church, I confirm that the direct and voluntary killing of an innocent human being is always gravely immoral. This doctrine, based upon that unwritten law which man, in the light of reason, finds in his own heart (cf. Rom 2:14-15), is reaffirmed by Sacred Scripture, transmitted by the Tradition of the Church and taught by the ordinary and universal Magisterium.

Therefore, by the authority which Christ conferred upon Peter and his Successors, in communion with the Bishops-who on various occasions have condemned abortion and who in the aforementioned consultation, albeit dispersed throughout the world, have shown unanimous agreement concerning this doctrine-I declare that direct abortion, that is, abortion willed as an end or as a means, always constitutes a grave moral disorder, since it is the deliberate killing of an innocent human being. This doctrine is based upon the natural law and upon the written Word of God, is transmitted by the Church's Tradition and taught by the ordinary and universal Magisterium.
73 No circumstance, no purpose, no law whatsoever can ever make licit an act which is intrinsically illicit, since it is contrary to the Law of God which is written in every human heart, knowable by reason itself, and proclaimed by the Church.
 
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Angeldove97

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I wish I could understand this all better---it's something that I really struggle with in my Catholic faith. And I don't like the idea that I can't understand why the Pope himself is infallible, while being a sinner still. So does this mean that I've completely fallen away from the Catholic faith?
 
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QuantaCura

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I wish I could understand this all better---it's something that I really struggle with in my Catholic faith. And I don't like the idea that I can't understand why the Pope himself is infallible, while being a sinner still. So does this mean that I've completely fallen away from the Catholic faith?

No.:) The writers of Sacred Scripture did so infallibly and yet they were all sinners. Or think of it this way--even when you or I know the truth, we can still sin against it (I know for a fact lying is a sin, I always correctly tell people lying is a sin, and yet, I still tell lies sometimes). Does that help?
 
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QuantaCura

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Different members of the Church have different charisms and functions.

The Successor of St. Peter has the ministry to maintain unity. If two factions were to have a dispute over the truth of some doctrine, both using Scripture to support their doctrine, who could settle it so as both can assuredly assent to the result?

This last say belongs to the Pope--he has the ministry to "confirm the brethren" and "feed the sheep" with the word of God. Since there can be no higher appeal, his definitive decisions need to be correct if the purity of the meaning of God's word is to be preserved. The Holy Spirit, the Spirit of truth, provides this assistance for the good of the whole Church.

God throughout history has always used sinful men to infallibly proclaim and hand down His word :thumbsup:--the prophets, the Apostles, their successors, etc.
 
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hsilgne

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I am not certain but the last I heard, from the Catholic Answer Book was on St. Mary in 1870. It may be that JPII did something with NFP but I am not sure.

You do not consider this as an infallible teaching?

It was written in 1950.

HUMANI GENERIS
ENCYCLICAL OF POPE PIUS XII
CONCERNING SOME FALSE OPINIONS THREATENING
TO UNDERMINE THE FOUNDATIONS OF CATHOLIC DOCTRINE
TO OUR VENERABLE BRETHREN, PATRIARCHS, PRIMATES,
ARCHBISHOPS, BISHIOPS, AND OTHER LOCAL ORDINARIES
ENJOYING PEACE AND COMMUNION WITH THE HOLY SEE
37. When, however, there is question of another conjectural opinion, namely polygenism, the children of the Church by no means enjoy such liberty. For the faithful cannot embrace that opinion which maintains that either after Adam there existed on this earth true men who did not take their origin through natural generation from him as from the first parent of all, or that Adam represents a certain number of first parents. Now it is no no way apparent how such an opinion can be reconciled with that which the sources of revealed truth and the documents of the Teaching Authority of the Church propose with regard to original sin, which proceeds from a sin actually committed by an individual Adam and which, through generation, is passed on to all and is in everyone as his own.[12]
 
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Benedicta00

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I wish I could understand this all better---it's something that I really struggle with in my Catholic faith. And I don't like the idea that I can't understand why the Pope himself is infallible, while being a sinner still. So does this mean that I've completely fallen away from the Catholic faith?
AD, he is infallible because he is teaching us what has already been taught with out error.

he does not make up new stuff to teach us and he can not be wrong... he is merely handing us the faith that Christ left to His apostles 2000 years ago.

He protects that, already given to us faith, from error, he transmits it properly to the Church in each age and he enforces it when he has to and in rare cases he will define it better if it needs to be.

The unique gift his office has is when he is speaking on matters of faith and morals, what Christ already gave to us, he will be prevented from teaching us a error pertaining to it. This has actually happened in history a few times where a pope was stopped miraculous from teaching against the faith.
 
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YourBrotherInChrist

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Humani Generis is generally taken to be an example of the Pope's authority to settle a theological argument without acting infallibly. From that document (emphasis added):
20. Nor must it be thought that what is expounded in Encyclical Letters does not of itself demand consent, since in writing such Letters the Popes do not exercise the supreme power of their Teaching Authority. For these matters are taught with the ordinary teaching authority, of which it is true to say: "He who heareth you, heareth me";[3] and generally what is expounded and inculcated in Encyclical Letters already for other reasons appertains to Catholic doctrine. But if the Supreme Pontiffs in their official documents purposely pass judgment on a matter up to that time under dispute, it is obvious that that matter, according to the mind and will of the Pontiffs, cannot be any longer considered a question open to discussion among theologians.
 
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hsilgne

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Humani Generis is generally taken to be an example of the Pope's authority to settle a theological argument without acting infallibly. From that document (emphasis added):
20. Nor must it be thought that what is expounded in Encyclical Letters does not of itself demand consent, since in writing such Letters the Popes do not exercise the supreme power of their Teaching Authority. For these matters are taught with the ordinary teaching authority, of which it is true to say: "He who heareth you, heareth me";[3] and generally what is expounded and inculcated in Encyclical Letters already for other reasons appertains to Catholic doctrine. But if the Supreme Pontiffs in their official documents purposely pass judgment on a matter up to that time under dispute, it is obvious that that matter, according to the mind and will of the Pontiffs, cannot be any longer considered a question open to discussion among theologians.

So then... as Catholics we are not required to believe in a literal Adam and Eve?
 
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YourBrotherInChrist

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Ordinatio Sacerdotalis is an example of the Pope contributing to the ordinary and universal magisterium, which is another way that the Church teaches infallibly. Ordinatio Sacerdotalis uses the language "this judgment is to be definitively held by all the Church's faithful", which is exactly the language that is required for infallibility of the ordinary and universal magisterium:
Although the individual bishops do not enjoy the prerogative of infallibility, they nevertheless proclaim Christ's doctrine infallibly whenever, even though dispersed through the world, but still maintaining the bond of communion among themselves and with the successor of Peter, and authentically teaching matters of faith and morals, they are in agreement on one position as definitively to be held. (Lumen Gentium 25)
In other words, Pope John Paul II wasn't acting infallibly by himself in Ordinatio Sacerdotalis, but the teaching it contains is infallible because all the other bishops of the Church have also definitively taught the same thing, not only at the current time but throughout history.

The last time that a pope taught infallibly by himself, that is, "ex cathedra" papal infallibility, was in 1950 by Pope Pius XII in Munificentissimus Deus.
 
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geocajun

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John Paul II:

Ordinatio Sacerdotalis:

Wherefore, in order that all doubt may be removed regarding a matter of great importance, a matter which pertains to the Church's divine constitution itself, in virtue of my ministry of confirming the brethren (cf. Lk 22:32) I declare that the Church has no authority whatsoever to confer priestly ordination on women and that this judgment is to be definitively held by all the Church's faithful.

Evangelium Vitae:

Therefore, by the authority which Christ conferred upon Peter and his Successors, and in communion with the Bishops of the Catholic Church, I confirm that the direct and voluntary killing of an innocent human being is always gravely immoral. This doctrine, based upon that unwritten law which man, in the light of reason, finds in his own heart (cf. Rom 2:14-15), is reaffirmed by Sacred Scripture, transmitted by the Tradition of the Church and taught by the ordinary and universal Magisterium.

Therefore, by the authority which Christ conferred upon Peter and his Successors, in communion with the Bishops-who on various occasions have condemned abortion and who in the aforementioned consultation, albeit dispersed throughout the world, have shown unanimous agreement concerning this doctrine-I declare that direct abortion, that is, abortion willed as an end or as a means, always constitutes a grave moral disorder, since it is the deliberate killing of an innocent human being. This doctrine is based upon the natural law and upon the written Word of God, is transmitted by the Church's Tradition and taught by the ordinary and universal Magisterium.
73 No circumstance, no purpose, no law whatsoever can ever make licit an act which is intrinsically illicit, since it is contrary to the Law of God which is written in every human heart, knowable by reason itself, and proclaimed by the Church.
I believe both of those examples are matters of constant magisterium, and not the extraordinary magisterium.
 
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YourBrotherInChrist

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So then... as Catholics we are not required to believe in a literal Adam and Eve?
Even though Humani Generis is not infallible, it is still binding on all Catholics. Theologians are no longer free to take up positions contrary to the teachings of Humani Generis. However, theologians are still actively debating what adherence to Humani Generis actually requires. At this point, there seem to be more questions than answers.
 
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geocajun

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Even though Humani Generis is not infallible, it is still binding on all Catholics. Theologians are no longer free to take up positions contrary to the teachings of Humani Generis. However, theologians are still actively debating what adherence to Humani Generis actually requires. At this point, there seem to be more questions than answers.

It depends on what the meaning of "is" is. -- Bill Clinton

;)
 
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hsilgne

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Even though Humani Generis is not infallible, it is still binding on all Catholics. Theologians are no longer free to take up positions contrary to the teachings of Humani Generis. However, theologians are still actively debating what adherence to Humani Generis actually requires. At this point, there seem to be more questions than answers.

Well if we believe the majority of the evolution crowd then there was not a literal Adam and Eve.

Unfortunately, this idea, if it's the truth forces our faith to crumble.

Agreed?
 
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