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Clear to you that we are no longer under Law?
But we have Jesus's finished work on the cross, while they did not.
I thought that was already established in Romans and Galatians. Did you miss it?
That is far from the point. We are talking about your interpretation of Romans 5:13 and 14. You interpret that verse to mean that nobody was held accountable for since because the law was given to Moses. So I am asking you about the people of Sodom and Gomorrah. We they not held accountable for their sins. This is the 4th time I am asking.
Paul was making the point that people after Adam still died even though their Individual sins were not imputed to them.
Why did they die then? Because they sin in Adam. Adam’s disobedience was imputed to them.
So those in sodom and g died because of Adam sin. I didn’t realise I had to explain even that to you. Is that a clear enough answer for you?
Nope, that is wrong. If they died because of Adam's sin, why did God single them out out of everybody else he destroyed. Plus, that is clearly not what the bible says because the bible explains clearly why they were destroyed. Are you not accept the reason given in scripture?
Paul was making the point that people after Adam still died even though their Individual sins were not imputed to them.
Why did they die then? Because they sin in Adam. Adam’s disobedience was imputed to them.
So those in sodom and g died because of Adam sin. I didn’t realise I had to explain even that to you. Is that a clear enough answer for you?
The last verse that I used clearly stated that a Christian is not under the law.
You want to disagree with that?
If you don't want to accept Paul's reasoning in Romans 5:12-13 "Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:", that is fine by me.
But please don't claim I have not answered your question.
Its extremely ridiculous. If God destroyed Sodom and Gomorrah because of Adam's sin which was imputed to them, why didn't he destroy every single individual since we all have fallen because of Adam's sin.That is silly. We suffer the consequence of Adam's sin (death) but we are not born guilty of it
Read it again...the key word is justified". Sin is the transgression of the law. We are no longer under the curse.
That is silly. We suffer the consequence of Adam's sin (death) but we are not born guilty of it
Its extremely ridiculous. If God destroyed Sodom and Gomorrah because of Adam's sin which was imputed to them, why didn't he destroy every single individual since we all have fallen because of Adam's sin.
In case you have forgotten, we are now in the grace dispensation where God the father is long suffering, not willing that any should perish...
But when the rapture of the church happens, you will see God pouring his wrath once again on the earth
If we are no longer under the law, naturally we won’t be under the curse of breaking the law.
You want the latter but not the former even though both are mentioned in that Galatians? Be my guest then
But when the rapture of the church happens, you will see God pouring his wrath once again on the earth
If you don’t get this part, then likewise as romans 5:12-19 is saying, you won’t fully get what imputed righteousness from Jesus death burial and resurrection really meant.
I know exactly what it means. It says what I said "through one man (Adam) sin entered into the world, and death through sin; and so death passed unto all men, for that all sinned". Death was the consequence of Adam's sin.
So before the "Grace Dispensation" God wanted people to perish. So God changed?
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